2014 Illinois Compiled Statutes
Chapter 720 - CRIMINAL OFFENSES
720 ILCS 5/ - Criminal Code of 2012.
Title III - Specific Offenses



(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III heading)

TITLE III. SPECIFIC OFFENSES




(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. A heading)

PART A. INCHOATE OFFENSES




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 8 heading)

ARTICLE 8. SOLICITATION, CONSPIRACY AND ATTEMPT


(720 ILCS 5/8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-1)
Sec. 8-1. Solicitation and solicitation of murder.
(a) Solicitation. A person commits the offense of solicitation when, with intent that an offense be committed, other than first degree murder, he or she commands, encourages, or requests another to commit that offense.
(b) Solicitation of murder. A person commits the offense of solicitation of murder when he or she commits solicitation with the intent that the offense of first degree murder be committed.
(c) Sentence. A person convicted of solicitation may be fined or imprisoned or both not to exceed the maximum provided for the offense solicited, except that the penalty shall not exceed the corresponding maximum limit provided by subparagraph (c) of Section 8-4 of this Code. Solicitation of murder is a Class X felony, and a person convicted of solicitation of murder shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 15 years and not more than 30 years, except that a person convicted of solicitation of murder when the person solicited was a person under the age of 17 years shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 20 years and not more than 60 years.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-1.1)
Sec. 8-1.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-689, eff. 12-31-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-1.2)
Sec. 8-1.2. Solicitation of murder for hire.
(a) A person commits the offense of solicitation of murder for hire when, with the intent that the offense of first degree murder be committed, he or she procures another to commit that offense pursuant to any contract, agreement, understanding, command, or request for money or anything of value.
(b) Sentence. Solicitation of murder for hire is a Class X felony, and a person convicted of solicitation of murder for hire shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 20 years and not more than 40 years, except that a person convicted of solicitation of murder for hire when the person solicited was a person under the age of 17 years shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 25 years and not more than 60 years.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-2)
Sec. 8-2. Conspiracy.
(a) Elements of the offense. A person commits the offense of conspiracy when, with intent that an offense be committed, he or she agrees with another to the commission of that offense. No person may be convicted of conspiracy to commit an offense unless an act in furtherance of that agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him or her or by a co-conspirator.
(b) Co-conspirators. It is not a defense to conspiracy that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:
(1) have not been prosecuted or convicted,
(2) have been convicted of a different offense,
(3) are not amenable to justice,
(4) have been acquitted, or
(5) lacked the capacity to commit an offense.
(c) Sentence.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection

or Code, a person convicted of conspiracy to commit:

(A) a Class X felony shall be sentenced for a

Class 1 felony;

(B) a Class 1 felony shall be sentenced for a

Class 2 felony;

(C) a Class 2 felony shall be sentenced for a

Class 3 felony;

(D) a Class 3 felony shall be sentenced for a

Class 4 felony;

(E) a Class 4 felony shall be sentenced for a

Class 4 felony; and

(F) a misdemeanor may be fined or imprisoned or

both not to exceed the maximum provided for the offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(2) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any of

the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class X felony:

(A) aggravated insurance fraud conspiracy when

the person is an organizer of the conspiracy (720 ILCS 5/46-4); or

(B) aggravated governmental entity insurance

fraud conspiracy when the person is an organizer of the conspiracy (720 ILCS 5/46-4).

(3) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any

of the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class 1 felony:

(A) first degree murder (720 ILCS 5/9-1); or
(B) aggravated insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3)

or aggravated governmental insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3).

(4) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit

insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3) or governmental entity insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3) shall be sentenced for a Class 2 felony.

(5) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any of

the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class 3 felony:

(A) soliciting for a prostitute (720 ILCS

5/11-14.3(a)(1));

(B) pandering (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(2)(A) or

5/11-14.3(a)(2)(B));

(C) keeping a place of prostitution (720 ILCS

5/11-14.3(a)(1));

(D) pimping (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(2)(C));
(E) unlawful use of weapons under Section

24-1(a)(1) (720 ILCS 5/24-1(a)(1));

(F) unlawful use of weapons under Section

24-1(a)(7) (720 ILCS 5/24-1(a)(7));

(G) gambling (720 ILCS 5/28-1);
(H) keeping a gambling place (720 ILCS 5/28-3);
(I) registration of federal gambling stamps

violation (720 ILCS 5/28-4);

(J) look-alike substances violation (720 ILCS

570/404);

(K) miscellaneous controlled substance violation

under Section 406(b) (720 ILCS 570/406(b)); or

(L) an inchoate offense related to any of the

principal offenses set forth in this item (5).

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-2.1)
Sec. 8-2.1. Conspiracy against civil rights.
(a) Offense. A person commits conspiracy against civil rights when, without legal justification, he or she, with the intent to interfere with the free exercise of any right or privilege secured by the Constitution of the United States, the Constitution of the State of Illinois, the laws of the United States, or the laws of the State of Illinois by any person or persons, agrees with another to inflict physical harm on any other person or the threat of physical harm on any other person and either the accused or a co-conspirator has committed any act in furtherance of that agreement.
(b) Co-conspirators. It shall not be a defense to conspiracy against civil rights that a person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:
(1) has not been prosecuted or convicted; or
(2) has been convicted of a different offense; or
(3) is not amenable to justice; or
(4) has been acquitted; or
(5) lacked the capacity to commit an offense.
(c) Sentence. Conspiracy against civil rights is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(Source: P.A. 92-830, eff. 1-1-03.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-3)
Sec. 8-3. Defense.
It is a defense to a charge of solicitation or conspiracy that if the criminal object were achieved the accused would not be guilty of an offense.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-4)
Sec. 8-4. Attempt.
(a) Elements of the offense.
A person commits the offense of attempt when, with intent to commit a specific offense, he or she does any act that constitutes a substantial step toward the commission of that offense.
(b) Impossibility.
It is not a defense to a charge of attempt that because of a misapprehension of the circumstances it would have been impossible for the accused to commit the offense attempted.
(c) Sentence.
A person convicted of attempt may be fined or imprisoned or both not to exceed the maximum provided for the offense attempted but, except for an attempt to commit the offense defined in Section 33A-2 of this Code:
(1) the sentence for attempt to commit first degree

murder is the sentence for a Class X felony, except that

(A) an attempt to commit first degree murder when

at least one of the aggravating factors specified in paragraphs (1), (2), and (12) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 is present is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 20 years and not more than 80 years;

(B) an attempt to commit first degree murder

while armed with a firearm is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(C) an attempt to commit first degree murder

during which the person personally discharged a firearm is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(D) an attempt to commit first degree murder

during which the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court; and

(E) if the defendant proves by a preponderance of

the evidence at sentencing that, at the time of the attempted murder, he or she was acting under a sudden and intense passion resulting from serious provocation by the individual whom the defendant endeavored to kill, or another, and, had the individual the defendant endeavored to kill died, the defendant would have negligently or accidentally caused that death, then the sentence for the attempted murder is the sentence for a Class 1 felony;

(2) the sentence for attempt to commit a Class X

felony is the sentence for a Class 1 felony;

(3) the sentence for attempt to commit a Class 1

felony is the sentence for a Class 2 felony;

(4) the sentence for attempt to commit a Class 2

felony is the sentence for a Class 3 felony; and

(5) the sentence for attempt to commit any felony

other than those specified in items (1), (2), (3), and (4) of this subsection (c) is the sentence for a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-5)
Sec. 8-5. Multiple convictions.
No person shall be convicted of both the inchoate and the principal offense.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/8-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-6)
Sec. 8-6. Offense. For the purposes of this Article, "offense" shall include conduct which if performed in another State would be criminal by the laws of that State and which conduct if performed in this State would be an offense under the laws of this State.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)




(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. B heading)

PART B. OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST THE PERSON




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 9 heading)

ARTICLE 9. HOMICIDE


(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)
Sec. 9-1. First degree Murder - Death penalties - Exceptions - Separate Hearings - Proof - Findings - Appellate procedures - Reversals.
(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:
(1) he either intends to kill or do great bodily harm

to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he knows that such acts create a strong

probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) he is attempting or committing a forcible felony

other than second degree murder.

(b) Aggravating Factors. A defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to death if:
(1) the murdered individual was a peace officer or

fireman killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman; or

(2) the murdered individual was an employee of an

institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, or the murdered individual was an inmate at such institution or facility and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof; or

(3) the defendant has been convicted of murdering two

or more individuals under subsection (a) of this Section or under any law of the United States or of any state which is substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section regardless of whether the deaths occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts so long as the deaths were the result of either an intent to kill more than one person or of separate acts which the defendant knew would cause death or create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; or

(4) the murdered individual was killed as a result of

the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus or other public conveyance; or

(5) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a

contract, agreement or understanding by which he was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value; or

(6) the murdered individual was killed in the course

of another felony if:

(a) the murdered individual:
(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or
(ii) received physical injuries personally

inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and

(b) in performing the acts which caused the death

of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (a) of paragraph (6) of subsection (b) of this Section, the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(c) the other felony was an inherently violent

crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this subparagraph (c), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion; or

(7) the murdered individual was under 12 years of age

and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(8) the defendant committed the murder with intent to

prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this paragraph (8), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors; or

(9) the defendant, while committing an offense

punishable under Sections 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407 or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(10) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution

or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(11) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated

and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom; or

(12) the murdered individual was an emergency medical

technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; or

(13) the defendant was a principal administrator,

organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person; or

(14) the murder was intentional and involved the

infliction of torture. For the purpose of this Section torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering or agony of the victim; or

(15) the murder was committed as a result of the

intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle; or

(16) the murdered individual was 60 years of age or

older and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(17) the murdered individual was a disabled person

and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was disabled. For purposes of this paragraph (17), "disabled person" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care; or

(18) the murder was committed by reason of any

person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(19) the murdered individual was subject to an order

of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; or

(20) the murdered individual was known by the

defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes; or

(21) the murder was committed by the defendant in

connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code.

(b-5) Aggravating Factor; Natural Life Imprisonment. A defendant who has been found guilty of first degree murder and who at the time of the commission of the offense had attained the age of 18 years or more may be sentenced to natural life imprisonment if (i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, (ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, and (iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.
(c) Consideration of factors in Aggravation and Mitigation.
The court shall consider, or shall instruct the jury to consider any aggravating and any mitigating factors which are relevant to the imposition of the death penalty. Aggravating factors may include but need not be limited to those factors set forth in subsection (b). Mitigating factors may include but need not be limited to the following:
(1) the defendant has no significant history of prior

criminal activity;

(2) the murder was committed while the defendant was

under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance, although not such as to constitute a defense to prosecution;

(3) the murdered individual was a participant in the

defendant's homicidal conduct or consented to the homicidal act;

(4) the defendant acted under the compulsion of

threat or menace of the imminent infliction of death or great bodily harm;

(5) the defendant was not personally present during

commission of the act or acts causing death;

(6) the defendant's background includes a history of

extreme emotional or physical abuse;

(7) the defendant suffers from a reduced mental

capacity.

(d) Separate sentencing hearing.
Where requested by the State, the court shall conduct a separate sentencing proceeding to determine the existence of factors set forth in subsection (b) and to consider any aggravating or mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). The proceeding shall be conducted:
(1) before the jury that determined the defendant's

guilt; or

(2) before a jury impanelled for the purpose of the

proceeding if:

A. the defendant was convicted upon a plea of

guilty; or

B. the defendant was convicted after a trial

before the court sitting without a jury; or

C. the court for good cause shown discharges the

jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(3) before the court alone if the defendant waives a

jury for the separate proceeding.

(e) Evidence and Argument.
During the proceeding any information relevant to any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) may be presented by either the State or the defendant under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. Any information relevant to any additional aggravating factors or any mitigating factors indicated in subsection (c) may be presented by the State or defendant regardless of its admissibility under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. The State and the defendant shall be given fair opportunity to rebut any information received at the hearing.
(f) Proof.
The burden of proof of establishing the existence of any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) is on the State and shall not be satisfied unless established beyond a reasonable doubt.
(g) Procedure - Jury.
If at the separate sentencing proceeding the jury finds that none of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. If there is a unanimous finding by the jury that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exist, the jury shall consider aggravating and mitigating factors as instructed by the court and shall determine whether the sentence of death shall be imposed. If the jury determines unanimously, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to death. If the court does not concur with the jury determination that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall set forth reasons in writing including what facts or circumstances the court relied upon, along with any relevant documents, that compelled the court to non-concur with the sentence. This document and any attachments shall be part of the record for appellate review. The court shall be bound by the jury's sentencing determination.
If after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, one or more jurors determines that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(h) Procedure - No Jury.
In a proceeding before the court alone, if the court finds that none of the factors found in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
If the Court determines that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the Court shall consider any aggravating and mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). If the Court determines, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the Court shall sentence the defendant to death.
If the court finds that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(h-5) Decertification as a capital case.
In a case in which the defendant has been found guilty of first degree murder by a judge or jury, or a case on remand for resentencing, and the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, on the court's own motion or the written motion of the defendant, the court may decertify the case as a death penalty case if the court finds that the only evidence supporting the defendant's conviction is the uncorroborated testimony of an informant witness, as defined in Section 115-21 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, concerning the confession or admission of the defendant or that the sole evidence against the defendant is a single eyewitness or single accomplice without any other corroborating evidence. If the court decertifies the case as a capital case under either of the grounds set forth above, the court shall issue a written finding. The State may pursue its right to appeal the decertification pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604(a)(1). If the court does not decertify the case as a capital case, the matter shall proceed to the eligibility phase of the sentencing hearing.
(i) Appellate Procedure.
The conviction and sentence of death shall be subject to automatic review by the Supreme Court. Such review shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Supreme Court. The Illinois Supreme Court may overturn the death sentence, and order the imposition of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if the court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case. If the Illinois Supreme Court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case, independent of any procedural grounds for relief, the Illinois Supreme Court shall issue a written opinion explaining this finding.
(j) Disposition of reversed death sentence.
In the event that the death penalty in this Act is held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, any person convicted of first degree murder shall be sentenced by the court to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
In the event that any death sentence pursuant to the sentencing provisions of this Section is declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, the court having jurisdiction over a person previously sentenced to death shall cause the defendant to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(k) Guidelines for seeking the death penalty.
The Attorney General and State's Attorneys Association shall consult on voluntary guidelines for procedures governing whether or not to seek the death penalty. The guidelines do not have the force of law and are only advisory in nature.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1475, eff. 1-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1.2)
Sec. 9-1.2. Intentional Homicide of an Unborn Child.
(a) A person commits the offense of intentional homicide of an unborn child if, in performing acts which cause the death of an unborn child, he without lawful justification:
(1) either intended to cause the death of or do great

bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child or knew that such acts would cause death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child; or

(2) knew that his acts created a strong probability

of death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child; and

(3) knew that the woman was pregnant.
(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.
(c) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as amended, to which the pregnant woman has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
(d) Penalty. The sentence for intentional homicide of an unborn child shall be the same as for first degree murder, except that:
(1) the death penalty may not be imposed;
(2) if the person committed the offense while armed

with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the

person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(4) if, during the commission of the offense, the

person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(e) The provisions of this Act shall not be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person under any other provision of law.
(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-2)
Sec. 9-2. Second degree murder.
(a) A person commits the offense of second degree murder when he or she commits the offense of first degree murder as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of this Code and either of the following mitigating factors are present:
(1) at the time of the killing he or she is acting

under a sudden and intense passion resulting from serious provocation by the individual killed or another whom the offender endeavors to kill, but he or she negligently or accidentally causes the death of the individual killed; or

(2) at the time of the killing he or she believes the

circumstances to be such that, if they existed, would justify or exonerate the killing under the principles stated in Article 7 of this Code, but his or her belief is unreasonable.

(b) Serious provocation is conduct sufficient to excite an intense passion in a reasonable person.
(c) When evidence of either of the mitigating factors defined in subsection (a) of this Section has been presented, the burden of proof is on the defendant to prove either mitigating factor by a preponderance of the evidence before the defendant can be found guilty of second degree murder. The burden of proof, however, remains on the State to prove beyond a reasonable doubt each of the elements of first degree murder and, when appropriately raised, the absence of circumstances at the time of the killing that would justify or exonerate the killing under the principles stated in Article 7 of this Code.
(d) Sentence. Second degree murder is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-2.1)
Sec. 9-2.1. Voluntary Manslaughter of an Unborn Child. (a) A person who kills an unborn child without lawful justification commits voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child if at the time of the killing he is acting under a sudden and intense passion resulting from serious provocation by another whom the offender endeavors to kill, but he negligently or accidentally causes the death of the unborn child.
Serious provocation is conduct sufficient to excite an intense passion in a reasonable person.
(b) A person who intentionally or knowingly kills an unborn child commits voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child if at the time of the killing he believes the circumstances to be such that, if they existed, would justify or exonerate the killing under the principles stated in Article 7 of this Code, but his belief is unreasonable.
(c) Sentence. Voluntary Manslaughter of an unborn child is a Class 1 felony.
(d) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.
(e) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as amended, to which the pregnant woman has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
(Source: P.A. 84-1414.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3)
Sec. 9-3. Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide.
(a) A person who unintentionally kills an individual without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of the death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle or operating a snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft, in which case the person commits reckless homicide. A person commits reckless homicide if he or she unintentionally kills an individual while driving a vehicle and using an incline in a roadway, such as a railroad crossing, bridge approach, or hill, to cause the vehicle to become airborne.
(b) (Blank).
(c) (Blank).
(d) Sentence.
(1) Involuntary manslaughter is a Class 3 felony.
(2) Reckless homicide is a Class 3 felony.
(e) (Blank).
(e-2) Except as provided in subsection (e-3), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense is committed upon a public thoroughfare where children pass going to and from school when a school crossing guard is performing official duties, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.
(e-3) In cases involving reckless homicide in which (i) the offense is committed upon a public thoroughfare where children pass going to and from school when a school crossing guard is performing official duties and (ii) the defendant causes the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.
(e-5) (Blank).
(e-7) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e-8), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant: (1) was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (2) was operating a vehicle while failing or refusing to comply with any lawful order or direction of any authorized police officer or traffic control aide engaged in traffic control, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.
(e-8) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct and: (1) was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (2) was operating a vehicle while failing or refusing to comply with any lawful order or direction of any authorized police officer or traffic control aide engaged in traffic control, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.
(e-9) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant drove a vehicle and used an incline in a roadway, such as a railroad crossing, bridge approach, or hill, to cause the vehicle to become airborne, and caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony.
(e-10) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting in the death of a peace officer killed in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer, the penalty is a Class 2 felony.
(e-11) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant unintentionally kills an individual while driving in a posted school zone, as defined in Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, while children are present or in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, when construction or maintenance workers are present the trier of fact may infer that the defendant's actions were performed recklessly where he or she was also either driving at a speed of more than 20 miles per hour in excess of the posted speed limit or violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(e-12) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e-13), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense was committed as result of a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.
(e-13) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense was committed as result of a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.
(e-14) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant unintentionally kills an individual, the trier of fact may infer that the defendant's actions were performed recklessly where he or she was also violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The penalty for a reckless homicide in which the driver also violated subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.
(f) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter in which the victim was a family or household member as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the penalty shall be a Class 2 felony, for which a person if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.
(Source: P.A. 95-467, eff. 6-1-08; 95-551, eff. 6-1-08; 95-587, eff. 6-1-08; 95-591, eff. 9-10-07; 95-803, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-884, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.1)
Sec. 9-3.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3-1.5)
Sec. 9-3-1.5. (Renumbered as Section 9-3.5).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.2)
Sec. 9-3.2. Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide of an Unborn Child. (a) A person who unintentionally kills an unborn child without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle, in which case the person commits reckless homicide of an unborn child.
(b) Sentence.
(1) Involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child is a Class 3 felony.
(2) Reckless homicide of an unborn child is a Class 3 felony.
(c) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.
(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as amended, to which the pregnant woman has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
(e) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person under any other provision of law, nor shall it be construed to preclude any civil cause of action.
(Source: P.A. 84-1414.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.3)
Sec. 9-3.3. Drug-induced homicide.
(a) A person who violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or Section 55 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another, and any person's death is caused by the injection, inhalation, absorption, or ingestion of any amount of that controlled substance, commits the offense of drug-induced homicide.
(b) Sentence. Drug-induced homicide is a Class X felony.
(c) A person who commits drug-induced homicide by violating subsection (a) or subsection (c) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or Section 55 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act commits a Class X felony for which the defendant shall in addition to a sentence authorized by law, be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 15 years and not more than 30 years or an extended term of not less than 30 years and not more than 60 years.
(Source: P.A. 97-191, eff. 7-22-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3.4) (was 720 ILCS 5/9-3.1)
Sec. 9-3.4. Concealment of homicidal death.
(a) A person commits the offense of concealment of homicidal death when he or she knowingly conceals the death of any other person with knowledge that such other person has died by homicidal means.
(b) Nothing in this Section prevents the defendant from also being charged with and tried for the first degree murder, second degree murder, or involuntary manslaughter of the person whose death is concealed.
(b-5) For purposes of this Section:
"Conceal" means the performing of some act or acts for the purpose of preventing or delaying the discovery of a death by homicidal means. "Conceal" means something more than simply withholding knowledge or failing to disclose information.
"Homicidal means" means any act or acts, lawful or unlawful, of a person that cause the death of another person.
(c) Sentence. Concealment of homicidal death is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/9-3.5)
Sec. 9-3.5. Concealment of death.
(a) For purposes of this Section, "conceal" means the performing of some act or acts for the purpose of preventing or delaying the discovery of a death. "Conceal" means something more than simply withholding knowledge or failing to disclose information.
(b) A person commits the offense of concealment of death when he or she knowingly conceals the death of any other person who died by other than homicidal means.
(c) A person commits the offense of concealment of death when he or she knowingly moves the body of a dead person from its place of death, with the intent of concealing information regarding the place or manner of death of that person, or the identity of any person with information regarding the death of that person. This subsection shall not apply to any movement of the body of a dead person by medical personnel, fire fighters, law enforcement officers, coroners, medical examiners, or licensed funeral directors, or by any person acting at the direction of medical personnel, fire fighters, law enforcement officers, coroners, medical examiners, or licensed funeral directors.
(d) Sentence. Concealment of death is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1361, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 10 heading)

ARTICLE 10. KIDNAPING AND RELATED OFFENSES


(720 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-1)
Sec. 10-1. Kidnapping.
(a) A person commits the offense of kidnapping when he or she knowingly:
(1) and secretly confines another against his or her

will;

(2) by force or threat of imminent force carries

another from one place to another with intent secretly to confine that other person against his or her will; or

(3) by deceit or enticement induces another to go

from one place to another with intent secretly to confine that other person against his or her will.

(b) Confinement of a child under the age of 13 years, or of a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, is against that child's or person's will within the meaning of this Section if that confinement is without the consent of that child's or person's parent or legal guardian.
(c) Sentence. Kidnapping is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-2)
Sec. 10-2. Aggravated kidnaping.
(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated kidnaping when he or she commits kidnapping and:
(1) kidnaps with the intent to obtain ransom from the

person kidnaped or from any other person;

(2) takes as his or her victim a child under the age

of 13 years, or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person;

(3) inflicts great bodily harm, other than by the

discharge of a firearm, or commits another felony upon his or her victim;

(4) wears a hood, robe, or mask or conceals his or

her identity;

(5) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with

a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, as defined in Section 33A-1 of this Code;

(6) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with

a firearm;

(7) during the commission of the offense of

kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm; or

(8) during the commission of the offense of

kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

As used in this Section, "ransom" includes money, benefit, or other valuable thing or concession.
(b) Sentence. Aggravated kidnaping in violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(7) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.
A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated kidnaping shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment; except that a sentence of natural life imprisonment shall not be imposed under this Section unless the second or subsequent offense was committed after conviction on the first offense.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-3)
Sec. 10-3. Unlawful restraint.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful restraint when he or she knowingly without legal authority detains another.
(b) Sentence. Unlawful restraint is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-3.1)
Sec. 10-3.1. Aggravated unlawful restraint.
(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful restraint when he or she commits unlawful restraint while using a deadly weapon.
(b) Sentence. Aggravated unlawful restraint is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-4)
Sec. 10-4. Forcible Detention.) (a) A person commits the offense of forcible detention when he holds an individual hostage without lawful authority for the purpose of obtaining performance by a third person of demands made by the person holding the hostage, and
(1) the person holding the hostage is armed with a dangerous weapon as defined in Section 33A-1 of this Code, or
(2) the hostage is known to the person holding him to be a peace officer or a correctional employee engaged in the performance of his official duties.
(b) Forcible detention is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 79-941.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-5)
Sec. 10-5. Child abduction.
(a) For purposes of this Section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) "Child" means a person who, at the time the

alleged violation occurred, was under the age of 18 or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled.

(2) "Detains" means taking or retaining physical

custody of a child, whether or not the child resists or objects.

(2.1) "Express consent" means oral or written

permission that is positive, direct, and unequivocal, requiring no inference or implication to supply its meaning.

(2.2) "Luring" means any knowing act to solicit,

entice, tempt, or attempt to attract the minor.

(3) "Lawful custodian" means a person or persons

granted legal custody of a child or entitled to physical possession of a child pursuant to a court order. It is presumed that, when the parties have never been married to each other, the mother has legal custody of the child unless a valid court order states otherwise. If an adjudication of paternity has been completed and the father has been assigned support obligations or visitation rights, such a paternity order should, for the purposes of this Section, be considered a valid court order granting custody to the mother.

(4) "Putative father" means a man who has a

reasonable belief that he is the father of a child born of a woman who is not his wife.

(5) "Unlawful purpose" means any misdemeanor or

felony violation of State law or a similar federal or sister state law or local ordinance.

(b) A person commits the offense of child abduction when he or she does any one of the following:
(1) Intentionally violates any terms of a valid court

order granting sole or joint custody, care, or possession to another by concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(2) Intentionally violates a court order prohibiting

the person from concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(3) Intentionally conceals, detains, or removes the

child without the consent of the mother or lawful custodian of the child if the person is a putative father and either: (A) the paternity of the child has not been legally established or (B) the paternity of the child has been legally established but no orders relating to custody have been entered. Notwithstanding the presumption created by paragraph (3) of subsection (a), however, a mother commits child abduction when she intentionally conceals or removes a child, whom she has abandoned or relinquished custody of, from an unadjudicated father who has provided sole ongoing care and custody of the child in her absence.

(4) Intentionally conceals or removes the child from

a parent after filing a petition or being served with process in an action affecting marriage or paternity but prior to the issuance of a temporary or final order determining custody.

(5) At the expiration of visitation rights outside

the State, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes the return of the child to the lawful custodian in Illinois.

(6) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents

of that child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals the child for 15 days, and fails to make reasonable attempts within the 15-day period to notify the other parent as to the specific whereabouts of the child, including a means by which to contact the child, or to arrange reasonable visitation or contact with the child. It is not a violation of this Section for a person fleeing domestic violence to take the child with him or her to housing provided by a domestic violence program.

(7) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents

of the child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child with physical force or threat of physical force.

(8) Knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child

for payment or promise of payment at the instruction of a person who has no legal right to custody.

(9) Knowingly retains in this State for 30 days a

child removed from another state without the consent of the lawful custodian or in violation of a valid court order of custody.

(10) Intentionally lures or attempts to lure a child:

(A) under the age of 17 or (B) while traveling to or from a primary or secondary school into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian for other than a lawful purpose. For the purposes of this item (10), the trier of fact may infer that luring or attempted luring of a child under the age of 17 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian or with the intent to avoid the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian was for other than a lawful purpose.

(11) With the intent to obstruct or prevent efforts

to locate the child victim of a child abduction, knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or disguises physical evidence or furnishes false information.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section that:
(1) the person had custody of the child pursuant to a

court order granting legal custody or visitation rights that existed at the time of the alleged violation;

(2) the person had physical custody of the child

pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights and failed to return the child as a result of circumstances beyond his or her control, and the person notified and disclosed to the other parent or legal custodian the specific whereabouts of the child and a means by which the child could be contacted or made a reasonable attempt to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of the child of those circumstances and made the disclosure within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and returned the child as soon as possible;

(3) the person was fleeing an incidence or pattern of

domestic violence; or

(4) the person lured or attempted to lure a child

under the age of 17 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place for a lawful purpose in prosecutions under paragraph (10) of subsection (b).

(d) A person convicted of child abduction under this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) shall undergo a sex offender evaluation prior to a sentence being imposed. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) when the person has a prior conviction of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense is guilty of a Class 2 felony. It is a factor in aggravation under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section for which a court may impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if, upon sentencing, the court finds evidence of any of the following aggravating factors:
(1) that the defendant abused or neglected the child

following the concealment, detention, or removal of the child;

(2) that the defendant inflicted or threatened to

inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of the child or on the child with intent to cause that parent or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution of the defendant under this Section;

(3) that the defendant demanded payment in exchange

for return of the child or demanded that he or she be relieved of the financial or legal obligation to support the child in exchange for return of the child;

(4) that the defendant has previously been convicted

of child abduction;

(5) that the defendant committed the abduction while

armed with a deadly weapon or the taking of the child resulted in serious bodily injury to another; or

(6) that the defendant committed the abduction while

in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; in a playground; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school or playground. For purposes of this paragraph (6), "playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation; and "school" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(e) The court may order the child to be returned to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed. In addition to any sentence imposed, the court may assess any reasonable expense incurred in searching for or returning the child against any person convicted of violating this Section.
(f) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to limit the court's contempt power.
(g) Every law enforcement officer investigating an alleged incident of child abduction shall make a written police report of any bona fide allegation and the disposition of that investigation. Every police report completed pursuant to this Section shall be compiled and recorded within the meaning of Section 5.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.
(h) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reasons to believe a child abduction has occurred, she or he shall provide the lawful custodian a summary of her or his rights under this Code, including the procedures and relief available to her or him.
(i) If during the course of an investigation under this Section the child is found in the physical custody of the defendant or another, the law enforcement officer shall return the child to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed, unless there is good cause for the law enforcement officer or the Department of Children and Family Services to retain temporary protective custody of the child pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-160, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-998, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-5.1)
Sec. 10-5.1. Luring of a minor.
(a) A person commits the offense of luring of a minor when the offender is 21 years of age or older and knowingly contacts or communicates electronically to the minor:
(1) knowing the minor is under 15 years of age;
(2) with the intent to persuade, lure or transport

the minor away from his or her home, or other location known by the minor's parent or legal guardian to be the place where the minor is to be located;

(3) for an unlawful purpose;
(4) without the express consent of the person's

parent or legal guardian;

(5) with the intent to avoid the express consent of

the person's parent or legal guardian;

(6) after so communicating, commits any act in

furtherance of the intent described in clause (a)(2); and

(7) is a stranger to the parents or legal guardian of

the minor.

(b) A person commits the offense of luring of a minor when the offender is at least 18 years of age but under 21 years of age and knowingly contacts or communicates electronically to the minor:
(1) knowing the minor is under 15 years of age;
(2) with the intent to persuade, lure, or transport

the minor away from his or her home or other location known by the minor's parent or legal guardian, to be the place where the minor is to be located;

(3) for an unlawful purpose;
(4) without the express consent of the person's

parent or legal guardian;

(5) with the intent to avoid the express consent of

the person's parent or legal guardian;

(6) after so communicating, commits any act in

furtherance of the intent described in clause (b)(2); and

(7) is a stranger to the parents or legal guardian of

the minor.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Emergency situation" means a situation in which

the minor is threatened with imminent bodily harm, emotional harm or psychological harm.

(2) "Express consent" means oral or written

permission that is positive, direct, and unequivocal, requiring no inference or implication to supply its meaning.

(3) "Contacts or communicates electronically"

includes but is not limited to, any attempt to make contact or communicate telephonically or through the Internet or text messages.

(4) "Luring" shall mean any knowing act to solicit,

entice, tempt, or attempt to attract the minor.

(5) "Minor" shall mean any person under the age of 15.
(6) "Stranger" shall have its common and ordinary

meaning, including but not limited to, a person that is either not known by the parents of the minor or does not have any association with the parents of the minor.

(7) "Unlawful purpose" shall mean any misdemeanor or

felony violation of State law or a similar federal or sister state law or local ordinance.

(d) This Section may not be interpreted to criminalize an act or person contacting a minor within the scope and course of his employment, or status as a volunteer of a recognized civic, charitable or youth organization.
(e) This Section is intended to protect minors and to help parents and legal guardians exercise reasonable care, supervision, protection, and control over minor children.
(f) Affirmative defenses.
(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to any offense

under this Section 10-5.1 that the accused reasonably believed that the minor was over the age of 15.

(2) It shall be an affirmative defense to any offense

under this Section 10-5.1 that the accused is assisting the minor in an emergency situation.

(3) It shall not be a defense to the prosecution of

any offense under this Section 10-5.1 if the person who is contacted by the offender is posing as a minor and is in actuality an adult law enforcement officer.

(g) Penalties.
(1) A first offense of luring of a minor under

subsection (a) shall be a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of luring of a minor under subsection (a) shall undergo a sex offender evaluation prior to a sentence being imposed. An offense of luring of a minor under subsection (a) when a person has a prior conviction in Illinois of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense, is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(2) A first offense of luring of a minor under

subsection (b) is a Class B misdemeanor.

(3) A second or subsequent offense of luring of a

minor under subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. A second or subsequent offense of luring of a minor under subsection (b) is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense when a person has a prior conviction in Illinois of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense, is a Class 1 felony. A defendant convicted a second time of an offense under subsection (a) or (b) shall register as a sexual predator of children pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(4) A third or subsequent offense is a Class 1

felony. A third or subsequent offense when a person has a prior conviction in Illinois of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense, is a Class X felony.

(h) For violations of subsection (a), jurisdiction shall be established if the transmission that constitutes the offense either originates in this State or is received in this State and does not apply to emergency situations. For violations of subsection (b), jurisdiction shall be established in any county where the act in furtherance of the commission of the offense is committed, in the county where the minor resides, or in the county where the offender resides.
(Source: P.A. 95-625, eff. 6-1-08.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-5.5)
Sec. 10-5.5. Unlawful visitation or parenting time interference.
(a) As used in this Section, the terms "child", "detain", and "lawful custodian" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10-5 of this Code.
(b) Every person who, in violation of the visitation, parenting time, or custody time provisions of a court order relating to child custody, detains or conceals a child with the intent to deprive another person of his or her rights to visitation, parenting time, or custody time commits the offense of unlawful visitation or parenting time interference.
(c) A person committing unlawful visitation or parenting time interference is guilty of a petty offense. Any person violating this Section after 2 prior convictions of unlawful visitation interference or unlawful visitation or parenting time interference, however, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) Any law enforcement officer who has probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing an act in violation of this Section shall issue to that person a notice to appear.
(e) The notice shall:
(1) be in writing;
(2) state the name of the person and his or her

address, if known;

(3) set forth the nature of the offense;
(4) be signed by the officer issuing the notice; and
(5) request the person to appear before a court at a

certain time and place.

(f) Upon failure of the person to appear, a summons or warrant of arrest may be issued.
(g) It is an affirmative defense that:
(1) a person or lawful custodian committed the act to

protect the child from imminent physical harm, provided that the defendant's belief that there was physical harm imminent was reasonable and that the defendant's conduct in withholding visitation rights, parenting time, or custody time was a reasonable response to the harm believed imminent;

(2) the act was committed with the mutual consent of

all parties having a right to custody and visitation of the child or parenting time with the child; or

(3) the act was otherwise authorized by law.
(Source: P.A. 96-333, eff. 8-11-09; 96-675, eff. 8-25-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-6)
Sec. 10-6. Harboring a runaway.
(a) Any person, other than an agency or association providing crisis intervention services as defined in Section 3-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or an operator of a youth emergency shelter as defined in Section 2.21 of the Child Care Act of 1969, who, without the knowledge and consent of the minor's parent or guardian, knowingly gives shelter to a minor, other than a mature minor who has been emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act, for more than 48 hours without the consent of the minor's parent or guardian, and without notifying the local law enforcement authorities of the minor's name and the fact that the minor is being provided shelter commits the offense of harboring a runaway.
(b) Any person who commits the offense of harboring a runaway is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-7)
Sec. 10-7. Aiding or abetting child abduction.
(a) A person violates this Section when, before or during the commission of a child abduction as defined in Section 10-5 and with the intent to promote or facilitate such offense, he or she intentionally aids or abets another in the planning or commission of child abduction, unless before the commission of the offense he or she makes proper effort to prevent the commission of the offense.
(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section commits a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-8)
Sec. 10-8. Unlawful sale of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor when the person sells a ticket for travel on any public conveyance to an unemancipated minor under 17 years of age without the consent of the minor's parents or guardian for passage to a destination outside this state and knows the minor's age or fails to take reasonable measures to ascertain the minor's age.
(b) Evidence. The fact that the defendant demanded, was shown, and reasonably relied upon written evidence of a person's age in any transaction forbidden by this Section is competent evidence, and may be considered in any criminal prosecution for a violation of this Section.
(c) Definition. "Public Conveyance", includes an airplane, boat, bus, railroad, train, taxicab or other vehicle used for the transportation of passengers for hire.
(d) Sentence. Unlawful sale of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor is a Class C misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 86-336.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-8.1)
Sec. 10-8.1. Unlawful sending of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor.
(a) In this Section, "public conveyance" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10-8 of this Code.
(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful sending of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor when the person without the consent of the minor's parent or guardian:
(1) knowingly sends, causes to be sent, or purchases

a public conveyance travel ticket to any location for a person known by the offender to be an unemancipated minor under 17 years of age or a person he or she believes to be a minor under 17 years of age, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law; or

(2) knowingly arranges for travel to any location on

any public conveyance for a person known by the offender to be an unemancipated minor under 17 years of age or a person he or she believes to be a minor under 17 years of age, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law.

(b-5) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.
(c) Sentence. Unlawful sending of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor is a Class A misdemeanor. A person who commits unlawful sending of a public conveyance travel ticket to a minor who believes that he or she is at least 5 years older than the minor is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-9)
Sec. 10-9. Trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and related offenses.
(a) Definitions. In this Section:
(1) "Intimidation" has the meaning prescribed in

Section 12-6.

(2) "Commercial sexual activity" means any sex act on

account of which anything of value is given, promised to, or received by any person.

(3) "Financial harm" includes intimidation that

brings about financial loss, criminal usury, or employment contracts that violate the Frauds Act.

(4) (Blank).
(5) "Labor" means work of economic or financial value.
(6) "Maintain" means, in relation to labor or

services, to secure continued performance thereof, regardless of any initial agreement on the part of the victim to perform that type of service.

(7) "Obtain" means, in relation to labor or services,

to secure performance thereof.

(7.5) "Serious harm" means any harm, whether physical

or nonphysical, including psychological, financial, or reputational harm, that is sufficiently serious, under all the surrounding circumstances, to compel a reasonable person of the same background and in the same circumstances to perform or to continue performing labor or services in order to avoid incurring that harm.

(8) "Services" means activities resulting from a

relationship between a person and the actor in which the person performs activities under the supervision of or for the benefit of the actor. Commercial sexual activity and sexually-explicit performances are forms of activities that are "services" under this Section. Nothing in this definition may be construed to legitimize or legalize prostitution.

(9) "Sexually-explicit performance" means a live,

recorded, broadcast (including over the Internet), or public act or show intended to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons.

(10) "Trafficking victim" means a person subjected to

the practices set forth in subsection (b), (c), or (d).

(b) Involuntary servitude. A person commits involuntary servitude when he or she knowingly subjects, attempts to subject, or engages in a conspiracy to subject another person to labor or services obtained or maintained through any of the following means, or any combination of these means:
(1) causes or threatens to cause physical harm to any

person;

(2) physically restrains or threatens to physically

restrain another person;

(3) abuses or threatens to abuse the law or legal

process;

(4) knowingly destroys, conceals, removes,

confiscates, or possesses any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person;

(5) uses intimidation, or exerts financial control

over any person; or

(6) uses any scheme, plan, or pattern intended to

cause the person to believe that, if the person did not perform the labor or services, that person or another person would suffer serious harm or physical restraint.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (b)(1) is a Class X felony, (b)(2) is a Class 1 felony, (b)(3) is a Class 2 felony, (b)(4) is a Class 3 felony, (b)(5) and (b)(6) is a Class 4 felony.
(c) Involuntary sexual servitude of a minor. A person commits involuntary sexual servitude of a minor when he or she knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, provide, or obtain by any means, another person under 18 years of age, knowing that the minor will engage in commercial sexual activity, a sexually-explicit performance, or the production of pornography, or causes or attempts to cause a minor to engage in one or more of those activities and:
(1) there is no overt force or threat and the minor

is between the ages of 17 and 18 years;

(2) there is no overt force or threat and the minor

is under the age of 17 years; or

(3) there is overt force or threat.
Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (c)(1) is a Class 1 felony, (c)(2) is a Class X felony, and (c)(3) is a Class X felony.
(d) Trafficking in persons. A person commits trafficking in persons when he or she knowingly: (1) recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, transport, provide, or obtain by any means, another person, intending or knowing that the person will be subjected to involuntary servitude; or (2) benefits, financially or by receiving anything of value, from participation in a venture that has engaged in an act of involuntary servitude or involuntary sexual servitude of a minor.
Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of this subsection is a Class 1 felony.
(e) Aggravating factors. A violation of this Section involving kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated criminal sexual assault or an attempt to commit aggravated criminal sexual assault, or an attempt to commit first degree murder is a Class X felony.
(f) Sentencing considerations.
(1) Bodily injury. If, pursuant to a violation of

this Section, a victim suffered bodily injury, the defendant may be sentenced to an extended-term sentence under Section 5-8-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The sentencing court must take into account the time in which the victim was held in servitude, with increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for between 180 days and one year, and increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for more than one year.

(2) Number of victims. In determining sentences

within statutory maximums, the sentencing court should take into account the number of victims, and may provide for substantially increased sentences in cases involving more than 10 victims.

(g) Restitution. Restitution is mandatory under this Section. In addition to any other amount of loss identified, the court shall order restitution including the greater of (1) the gross income or value to the defendant of the victim's labor or services or (2) the value of the victim's labor as guaranteed under the Minimum Wage Law and overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) or the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is greater.
(g-5) Fine distribution. If the court imposes a fine under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section, it shall be collected and distributed to the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund in accordance with Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(h) Trafficking victim services. Subject to the availability of funds, the Department of Human Services may provide or fund emergency services and assistance to individuals who are victims of one or more offenses defined in this Section.
(i) Certification. The Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official shall certify in writing to the United States Department of Justice or other federal agency, such as the United States Department of Homeland Security, that an investigation or prosecution under this Section has begun and the individual who is a likely victim of a crime described in this Section is willing to cooperate or is cooperating with the investigation to enable the individual, if eligible under federal law, to qualify for an appropriate special immigrant visa and to access available federal benefits. Cooperation with law enforcement shall not be required of victims of a crime described in this Section who are under 18 years of age. This certification shall be made available to the victim and his or her designated legal representative.
(j) A person who commits involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/10-10)
Sec. 10-10. Failure to report the death or disappearance of a child under 13 years of age.
(a) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker of a child under 13 years of age commits failure to report the death or disappearance of a child under 13 years of age when he or she knows or should know and fails to report the child as missing or deceased to a law enforcement agency within 24 hours if the parent, legal guardian, or caretaker reasonably believes that the child is missing or deceased. In the case of a child under the age of 2 years, the reporting requirement is reduced to no more than one hour.
(b) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker of a child under 13 years of age must report the death of the child to the law enforcement agency of the county where the child's corpse was found if the parent, legal guardian, or caretaker reasonably believes that the death of the child was caused by a homicide, accident, or other suspicious circumstance.
(c) The Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator shall not personally be subject to the reporting requirements in subsection (a) or (b) of this Section.
(d) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker does not commit the offense of failure to report the death or disappearance of a child under 13 years of age when:
(1) the failure to report is due to an act of God,

act of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to receive a report of the disappearance of a child;

(2) the parent, legal guardian, or caretaker calls

911 to report the disappearance of the child;

(3) the parent, legal guardian, or caretaker knows

that the child is under the care of another parent, family member, relative, friend, or baby sitter; or

(4) the parent, legal guardian, or caretaker is

hospitalized, in a coma, or is otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to prevent the person from reporting the death or disappearance.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1079, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 10A heading)

ARTICLE 10A. (Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 heading)

ARTICLE 11. SEX OFFENSES




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. GENERAL DEFINITIONS
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-0.1)
Sec. 11-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:
"Accused" means a person accused of an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code or a person for whose conduct the accused is legally responsible under Article 5 of this Code.
"Adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site". See Section 11-23.
"Advance prostitution" means:
(1) Soliciting for a prostitute by performing any of

the following acts when acting other than as a prostitute or a patron of a prostitute:

(A) Soliciting another for the purpose of

prostitution.

(B) Arranging or offering to arrange a meeting of

persons for the purpose of prostitution.

(C) Directing another to a place knowing the

direction is for the purpose of prostitution.

(2) Keeping a place of prostitution by controlling or

exercising control over the use of any place that could offer seclusion or shelter for the practice of prostitution and performing any of the following acts when acting other than as a prostitute or a patron of a prostitute:

(A) Knowingly granting or permitting the use of

the place for the purpose of prostitution.

(B) Granting or permitting the use of the place

under circumstances from which he or she could reasonably know that the place is used or is to be used for purposes of prostitution.

(C) Permitting the continued use of the place

after becoming aware of facts or circumstances from which he or she should reasonably know that the place is being used for purposes of prostitution.

"Agency". See Section 11-9.5.
"Arranges". See Section 11-6.5.
"Bodily harm" means physical harm, and includes, but is not limited to, sexually transmitted disease, pregnancy, and impotence.
"Care and custody". See Section 11-9.5.
"Child care institution". See Section 11-9.3.
"Child pornography". See Section 11-20.1.
"Child sex offender". See Section 11-9.3.
"Community agency". See Section 11-9.5.
"Conditional release". See Section 11-9.2.
"Consent". See Section 11-1.70.
"Custody". See Section 11-9.2.
"Day care center". See Section 11-9.3.
"Depict by computer". See Section 11-20.1.
"Depiction by computer". See Section 11-20.1.
"Disseminate". See Section 11-20.1.
"Distribute". See Section 11-21.
"Family member" means a parent, grandparent, child, aunt, uncle, great-aunt, or great-uncle, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption, and includes a step-grandparent, step-parent, or step-child. "Family member" also means, if the victim is a child under 18 years of age, an accused who has resided in the household with the child continuously for at least 6 months.
"Force or threat of force" means the use of force or violence or the threat of force or violence, including, but not limited to, the following situations:
(1) when the accused threatens to use force or

violence on the victim or on any other person, and the victim under the circumstances reasonably believes that the accused has the ability to execute that threat; or

(2) when the accused overcomes the victim by use of

superior strength or size, physical restraint, or physical confinement.

"Harmful to minors". See Section 11-21.
"Loiter". See Section 9.3.
"Material". See Section 11-21.
"Minor". See Section 11-21.
"Nudity". See Section 11-21.
"Obscene". See Section 11-20.
"Part day child care facility". See Section 11-9.3.
"Penal system". See Section 11-9.2.
"Person responsible for the child's welfare". See Section 11-9.1A.
"Person with a disability". See Section 11-9.5.
"Playground". See Section 11-9.3.
"Probation officer". See Section 11-9.2.
"Produce". See Section 11-20.1.
"Profit from prostitution" means, when acting other than as a prostitute, to receive anything of value for personally rendered prostitution services or to receive anything of value from a prostitute, if the thing received is not for lawful consideration and the person knows it was earned in whole or in part from the practice of prostitution.
"Public park". See Section 11-9.3.
"Public place". See Section 11-30.
"Reproduce". See Section 11-20.1.
"Sado-masochistic abuse". See Section 11-21.
"School". See Section 11-9.3.
"School official". See Section 11-9.3.
"Sexual abuse". See Section 11-9.1A.
"Sexual act". See Section 11-9.1.
"Sexual conduct" means any knowing touching or fondling by the victim or the accused, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, anus, or breast of the victim or the accused, or any part of the body of a child under 13 years of age, or any transfer or transmission of semen by the accused upon any part of the clothed or unclothed body of the victim, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the victim or the accused.
"Sexual excitement". See Section 11-21.
"Sexual penetration" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person and an object or the sex organ, mouth, or anus of another person, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of one person or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of another person, including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual penetration.
"Solicit". See Section 11-6.
"State-operated facility". See Section 11-9.5.
"Supervising officer". See Section 11-9.2.
"Surveillance agent". See Section 11-9.2.
"Treatment and detention facility". See Section 11-9.2.
"Victim" means a person alleging to have been subjected to an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. MAJOR SEX OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-18)
Sec. 11-1.10. General provisions concerning offenses described in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60.
(a) No person accused of violating Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code shall be presumed to be incapable of committing an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code because of age, physical condition or relationship to the victim. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to modify or abrogate the affirmative defense of infancy under Section 6-1 of this Code or the provisions of Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
(b) Any medical examination or procedure which is conducted by a physician, nurse, medical or hospital personnel, parent, or caretaker for purposes and in a manner consistent with reasonable medical standards is not an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.
(c) (Blank).
(d) (Blank).
(e) The prosecuting State's Attorney shall seek an order from the court to compel the accused to be tested for any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), within 48 hours:
(1) after a finding at a preliminary hearing that

there is probable cause to believe that an accused has committed a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code, or

(2) after an indictment is returned charging an

accused with a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code, or

(3) after a finding that a defendant charged with a

violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code is unfit to stand trial pursuant to Section 104-16 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 where the finding is made prior to the preliminary hearing, or

(4) after the request of the victim of the violation

of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40.

The medical tests shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners. The testing shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention; in the event of a positive result, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered. The results of the tests and any follow-up tests shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the victim, to the defendant, to the State's Attorney, and to the judge who entered the order, for the judge's inspection in camera. The judge shall provide to the victim a referral to the Illinois Department of Public Health HIV/AIDS toll-free hotline for counseling and information in connection with the test result. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the result of the testing may be revealed; however, in no case shall the identity of the victim be disclosed. The court shall order that the cost of the tests shall be paid by the county, and shall be taxed as costs against the accused if convicted.
(f) Whenever any law enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe that a person has been delivered a controlled substance without his or her consent, the law enforcement officer shall advise the victim about seeking medical treatment and preserving evidence.
(g) Every hospital providing emergency hospital services to an alleged sexual assault survivor, when there is reasonable cause to believe that a person has been delivered a controlled substance without his or her consent, shall designate personnel to provide:
(1) An explanation to the victim about the nature and

effects of commonly used controlled substances and how such controlled substances are administered.

(2) An offer to the victim of testing for the

presence of such controlled substances.

(3) A disclosure to the victim that all controlled

substances or alcohol ingested by the victim will be disclosed by the test.

(4) A statement that the test is completely voluntary.
(5) A form for written authorization for sample

analysis of all controlled substances and alcohol ingested by the victim.

A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may agree to be a designated person under this subsection.
No sample analysis may be performed unless the victim returns a signed written authorization within 30 days after the sample was collected.
Any medical treatment or care under this subsection shall be only in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches. Any testing under this subsection shall be only in accordance with the order of a licensed individual authorized to order the testing.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-761, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.20) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-13)
Sec. 11-1.20. Criminal Sexual Assault.
(a) A person commits criminal sexual assault if that person commits an act of sexual penetration and:
(1) uses force or threat of force;
(2) knows that the victim is unable to understand the

nature of the act or is unable to give knowing consent;

(3) is a family member of the victim, and the victim

is under 18 years of age; or

(4) is 17 years of age or over and holds a position

of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim, and the victim is at least 13 years of age but under 18 years of age.

(b) Sentence.
(1) Criminal sexual assault is a Class 1 felony,

except that:

(A) A person who is convicted of the offense of

criminal sexual assault as defined in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of exploitation of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault as defined in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) after having previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual assault or to the offense of exploitation of a child, commits a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 30 years and not more than 60 years. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (A) to apply.

(B) A person who is convicted of the offense of

criminal sexual assault as defined in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) after having previously been convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault as defined in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) after having previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (B) to apply.

(C) A second or subsequent conviction for a

violation of paragraph (a)(3) or (a)(4) or under any similar statute of this State or any other state for any offense involving criminal sexual assault that is substantially equivalent to or more serious than the sexual assault prohibited under paragraph (a)(3) or (a)(4) is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.30) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14)
Sec. 11-1.30. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault.
(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits criminal sexual assault and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist during the commission of the offense or, for purposes of paragraph (7), occur as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:
(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a

dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim,

except as provided in paragraph (10);

(3) the person acts in a manner that threatens or

endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(4) the person commits the criminal sexual assault

during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony;

(5) the victim is 60 years of age or older;
(6) the victim is a physically handicapped person;
(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation,

ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception for other than medical purposes;

(8) the person is armed with a firearm;
(9) the person personally discharges a firearm during

the commission of the offense; or

(10) the person personally discharges a firearm

during the commission of the offense, and that discharge proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 13 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.
(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.
(d) Sentence.
(1) Aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation

of paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (a) or in violation of subsection (b) or (c) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony for which 10 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(9) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(10) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) A person who is convicted of a second or

subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted under the laws of this or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual assault, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14.1)
Sec. 11-1.40. Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.
(a) A person commits predatory criminal sexual assault of a child if that person is 17 years of age or older, and commits an act of contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person and the part of the body of another for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the victim or the accused, or an act of sexual penetration, and:
(1) the victim is under 13 years of age; or
(2) the victim is under 13 years of age and that

person:

(A) is armed with a firearm;
(B) personally discharges a firearm during the

commission of the offense;

(C) causes great bodily harm to the victim that:
(i) results in permanent disability; or
(ii) is life threatening; or
(D) delivers (by injection, inhalation,

ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception, for other than medical purposes.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection

(a)(1) commits a Class X felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(A) commits a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(B) commits a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(C) commits a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 50 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(1.1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection

(a)(2)(D) commits a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 50 years and not more than 60 years.

(1.2) A person convicted of predatory criminal sexual

assault of a child committed against 2 or more persons regardless of whether the offenses occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(2) A person who is convicted of a second or

subsequent offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child after having previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of criminal sexual assault, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.

(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-903, eff. 8-15-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.50) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-15)
Sec. 11-1.50. Criminal sexual abuse.
(a) A person commits criminal sexual abuse if that person:
(1) commits an act of sexual conduct by the use of

force or threat of force; or

(2) commits an act of sexual conduct and knows that

the victim is unable to understand the nature of the act or is unable to give knowing consent.

(b) A person commits criminal sexual abuse if that person is under 17 years of age and commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 17 years of age.
(c) A person commits criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person is less than 5 years older than the victim.
(d) Sentence. Criminal sexual abuse for a violation of subsection (b) or (c) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. Criminal sexual abuse for a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony. For purposes of this Section it is a second or subsequent conviction if the accused has at any time been convicted under this Section or under any similar statute of this State or any other state for any offense involving sexual abuse or sexual assault that is substantially equivalent to or more serious than the sexual abuse prohibited under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.60) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-16)
Sec. 11-1.60. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Abuse.
(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits criminal sexual abuse and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist (i) during the commission of the offense or (ii) for purposes of paragraph (7), as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:
(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a

dangerous weapon or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim;
(3) the victim is 60 years of age or older;
(4) the victim is a physically handicapped person;
(5) the person acts in a manner that threatens or

endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(6) the person commits the criminal sexual abuse

during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony; or

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation,

ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim for other than medical purposes without the victim's consent or by threat or deception.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 18 years of age and the person is a family member.
(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if:
(1) that person is 17 years of age or over and: (i)

commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 13 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act; or

(2) that person is under 17 years of age and: (i)

commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(d) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person is at least 5 years older than the victim.
(e) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.
(f) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 18 years of age and the person is 17 years of age or over and holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim.
(g) Sentence. Aggravated criminal sexual abuse is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.70) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-17)
Sec. 11-1.70. Defenses with respect to offenses described in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60.
(a) It shall be a defense to any offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code where force or threat of force is an element of the offense that the victim consented. "Consent" means a freely given agreement to the act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct in question. Lack of verbal or physical resistance or submission by the victim resulting from the use of force or threat of force by the accused shall not constitute consent. The manner of dress of the victim at the time of the offense shall not constitute consent.
(b) It shall be a defense under subsection (b) and subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 and subsection (d) of Section 11-1.60 of this Code that the accused reasonably believed the person to be 17 years of age or over.
(c) A person who initially consents to sexual penetration or sexual conduct is not deemed to have consented to any sexual penetration or sexual conduct that occurs after he or she withdraws consent during the course of that sexual penetration or sexual conduct.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-1.80) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-18.1)
Sec. 11-1.80. Civil Liability.
(a) If any person has been convicted of any offense defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of this Act, a victim of such offense has a cause of action for damages against any person or entity who, by the manufacture, production, or wholesale distribution of any obscene material which was possessed or viewed by the person convicted of the offense, proximately caused such person, through his or her reading or viewing of the obscene material, to commit the violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16. No victim may recover in any such action unless he or she proves by a preponderance of the evidence that: (1) the reading or viewing of the specific obscene material manufactured, produced, or distributed wholesale by the defendant proximately caused the person convicted of the violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 to commit such violation and (2) the defendant knew or had reason to know that the manufacture, production, or wholesale distribution of such material was likely to cause a violation of an offense substantially of the type enumerated.
(b) The manufacturer, producer or wholesale distributor shall be liable to the victim for:
(1) actual damages incurred by the victim, including

medical costs;

(2) court costs and reasonable attorneys fees;
(3) infliction of emotional distress;
(4) pain and suffering; and
(5) loss of consortium.
(c) Every action under this Section shall be commenced within 3 years after the conviction of the defendant for a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-15 or 12-16 of this Code. However, if the victim was under the age of 18 years at the time of the conviction of the defendant for a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of this Code, an action under this Section shall be commenced within 3 years after the victim attains the age of 18 years.
(d) For the purposes of this Section:
(1) "obscene" has the meaning ascribed to it in

subsection (b) of Section 11-20 of this Code;

(2) "wholesale distributor" means any individual,

partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity which stands between the manufacturer and the retail seller in purchases, consignments, contracts for sale or rental of the obscene material;

(3) "producer" means any individual, partnership,

corporation, association, or other legal entity which finances or supervises, to any extent, the production or making of obscene material;

(4) "manufacturer" means any individual, partnership,

corporation, association, or other legal entity which manufacturers, assembles or produces obscene material.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-6)
Sec. 11-6. Indecent solicitation of a child.
(a) A person of the age of 17 years and upwards commits indecent solicitation of a child if the person, with the intent that the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse be committed, knowingly solicits a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child to perform an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.
(a-5) A person of the age of 17 years and upwards commits indecent solicitation of a child if the person knowingly discusses an act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a child or with one whom he or she believes to be a child by means of the Internet with the intent that the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse be committed.
(a-6) It is not a defense to subsection (a-5) that the person did not solicit the child to perform sexual conduct or sexual penetration with the person.
(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:
"Solicit" means to command, authorize, urge, incite,

request, or advise another to perform an act by any means including, but not limited to, in person, over the phone, in writing, by computer, or by advertisement of any kind.

"Child" means a person under 17 years of age.
"Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section

16-0.1 of this Code.

"Sexual penetration" or "sexual conduct" are defined

in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(c) Sentence. Indecent solicitation of a child under subsection (a) is:
(1) a Class 1 felony when the act, if done, would be

predatory criminal sexual assault of a child or aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(2) a Class 2 felony when the act, if done, would be

criminal sexual assault;

(3) a Class 3 felony when the act, if done, would be

aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

Indecent solicitation of a child under subsection (a-5) is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-6.5)
Sec. 11-6.5. Indecent solicitation of an adult.
(a) A person commits indecent solicitation of an adult if the person knowingly:
(1) Arranges for a person 17 years of age or over to

commit an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 with a person:

(i) Under the age of 13 years; or
(ii) Thirteen years of age or over but under the

age of 17 years; or

(2) Arranges for a person 17 years of age or over to

commit an act of sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 with a person:

(i) Under the age of 13 years; or
(ii) Thirteen years of age or older but under the

age of 17 years.

(b) Sentence.
(1) Violation of paragraph (a)(1)(i) is a Class X

felony.

(2) Violation of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) is a Class 1

felony.

(3) Violation of paragraph (a)(2)(i) is a Class 2

felony.

(4) Violation of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) is a Class A

misdemeanor.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "arranges" includes but is not limited to oral or written communication and communication by telephone, computer, or other electronic means. "Computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-6.6)
Sec. 11-6.6. Solicitation to meet a child.
(a) A person of the age of 18 or more years commits the offense of solicitation to meet a child if the person while using a computer, cellular telephone, or any other device, with the intent to meet a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child, solicits, entices, induces, or arranges with the child to meet at a location without the knowledge of the child's parent or guardian and the meeting with the child is arranged for a purpose other than a lawful purpose under Illinois law.
(b) Sentence. Solicitation to meet a child is a Class A misdemeanor. Solicitation to meet a child is a Class 4 felony when the solicitor believes he or she is 5 or more years older than the child.
(c) For purposes of this Section, "child" means any person under 17 years of age; and "computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16D-2 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-7)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-35 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 11-7. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 86-490. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-8)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-40 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 11-8. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 86-490. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-9)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-30 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 11-9. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 96-1098, eff. 1-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. VULNERABLE VICTIM OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-9.1)
Sec. 11-9.1. Sexual exploitation of a child.
(a) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child if in the presence or virtual presence, or both, of a child and with knowledge that a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child would view his or her acts, that person:
(1) engages in a sexual act; or
(2) exposes his or her sex organs, anus or breast for

the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of such person or the child or one whom he or she believes to be a child.

(a-5) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child who knowingly entices, coerces, or persuades a child to remove the child's clothing for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of the person or the child, or both.
(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:
"Sexual act" means masturbation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.
"Sex offense" means any violation of Article 11 of this Code or Section 12-5.01 of this Code.
"Child" means a person under 17 years of age.
"Virtual presence" means an environment that is created with software and presented to the user and or receiver via the Internet, in such a way that the user appears in front of the receiver on the computer monitor or screen or hand held portable electronic device, usually through a web camming program. "Virtual presence" includes primarily experiencing through sight or sound, or both, a video image that can be explored interactively at a personal computer or hand held communication device, or both.
"Webcam" means a video capturing device connected to a computer or computer network that is designed to take digital photographs or live or recorded video which allows for the live transmission to an end user over the Internet.
(c) Sentence.
(1) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class A

misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section or a substantially similar law of another state is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4

felony if the person has been previously convicted of a sex offense.

(3) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4

felony if the victim was under 13 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(4) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4

felony if committed by a person 18 years of age or older who is on or within 500 feet of elementary or secondary school grounds when children are present on the grounds.

(Source: P.A. 96-1090, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1098, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1A)
Sec. 11-9.1A. Permitting sexual abuse of a child.
(a) A person responsible for a child's welfare commits permitting sexual abuse of a child if the person has actual knowledge of and permits an act of sexual abuse upon the child, or permits the child to engage in prostitution as defined in Section 11-14 of this Code.
(b) In this Section:
"Actual knowledge" includes credible allegations made by the child.
"Child" means a minor under the age of 17 years.
"Person responsible for the child's welfare" means the child's parent, step-parent, legal guardian, or other person having custody of a child, who is responsible for the child's care at the time of the alleged sexual abuse.
"Prostitution" means prostitution as defined in Section 11-14 of this Code.
"Sexual abuse" includes criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual assault as defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.
(c) This Section does not apply to a person responsible for the child's welfare who, having reason to believe that sexual abuse has occurred, makes timely and reasonable efforts to stop the sexual abuse by reporting the sexual abuse in conformance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by reporting the sexual abuse, or causing a report to be made, to medical or law enforcement authorities or anyone who is a mandated reporter under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
(d) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reason to believe that the child or the person responsible for the child's welfare has been abused by a family or household member as defined by the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the officer shall immediately use all reasonable means to prevent further abuse under Section 112A-30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(e) An order of protection under Section 111-8 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall be sought in all cases where there is reason to believe that a child has been sexually abused by a family or household member. In considering appropriate available remedies, it shall be presumed that awarding physical care or custody to the abuser is not in the child's best interest.
(f) A person may not be charged with the offense of permitting sexual abuse of a child under this Section until the person who committed the offense is charged with criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or prostitution.
(g) A person convicted of permitting the sexual abuse of a child is guilty of a Class 1 felony. As a condition of any sentence of supervision, probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release, any person convicted under this Section shall be ordered to undergo child sexual abuse, domestic violence, or other appropriate counseling for a specified duration with a qualified social or mental health worker.
(h) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of permitting sexual abuse of a child under this Section that the person responsible for the child's welfare had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the abuse or prostitution would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1B)
Sec. 11-9.1B. Failure to report sexual abuse of a child.
(a) For the purposes of this Section:
"Child" means any person under the age of 13.
"Sexual abuse" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of the victim or the accused and an object or body part, including, but not limited to, the sex organ, mouth, or anus of the victim or the accused, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of the victim or the accused or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of the victim or the accused, including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual abuse.
(b) A person over the age of 18 commits failure to report sexual abuse of a child when he or she personally observes sexual abuse, as defined by this Section, between a person who he or she knows is over the age of 18 and a person he or she knows is a child, and knowingly fails to report the sexual abuse to law enforcement.
(c) This Section does not apply to a person who makes timely and reasonable efforts to stop the sexual abuse by reporting the sexual abuse in conformance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by reporting the sexual abuse or causing a report to be made, to medical or law enforcement authorities or anyone who is a mandated reporter under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
(d) A person may not be charged with the offense of failure to report sexual abuse of a child under this Section until the person who committed the offense is charged with criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse.
(e) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to report sexual abuse of a child under this Section that the person who personally observed the sexual abuse had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the abuse would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.
(f) Sentence. A person who commits failure to report sexual abuse of a child is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.
(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow prosecution of a person who personally observes the act of sexual abuse and assists with an investigation and any subsequent prosecution of the offender.
(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.2)
Sec. 11-9.2. Custodial sexual misconduct.
(a) A person commits custodial sexual misconduct when: (1) he or she is an employee of a penal system and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that penal system or (2) he or she is an employee of a treatment and detention facility and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that treatment and detention facility.
(b) A probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist commits custodial sexual misconduct when the probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a probationer, parolee, or releasee or person serving a term of conditional release who is under the supervisory, disciplinary, or custodial authority of the officer or agent or employee so engaging in the sexual conduct or sexual penetration.
(c) Custodial sexual misconduct is a Class 3 felony.
(d) Any person convicted of violating this Section immediately shall forfeit his or her employment with a penal system, treatment and detention facility, or conditional release program.
(e) For purposes of this Section, the consent of the probationer, parolee, releasee, or inmate in custody of the penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a defense to a prosecution under this Section. A person is deemed incapable of consent, for purposes of this Section, when he or she is a probationer, parolee, releasee, or inmate in custody of a penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.
(f) This Section does not apply to:
(1) Any employee, probation or supervising officer,

surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist who is lawfully married to a person in custody if the marriage occurred before the date of custody.

(2) Any employee, probation or supervising officer,

surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist who has no knowledge, and would have no reason to believe, that the person with whom he or she engaged in custodial sexual misconduct was a person in custody.

(g) In this Section:
(0.5) "Aftercare specialist" means any person

employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to supervise and facilitate services for persons placed on aftercare release.

(1) "Custody" means:
(i) pretrial incarceration or detention;
(ii) incarceration or detention under a sentence

or commitment to a State or local penal institution;

(iii) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory

supervised release;

(iv) electronic home detention;
(v) probation;
(vi) detention or civil commitment either in

secure care or in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(2) "Penal system" means any system which includes

institutions as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code or a county shelter care or detention home established under Section 1 of the County Shelter Care and Detention Home Act.

(2.1) "Treatment and detention facility" means any

Department of Human Services facility established for the detention or civil commitment of persons under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(2.2) "Conditional release" means a program of

treatment and services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment provided to any person civilly committed and conditionally released to the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(3) "Employee" means:
(i) an employee of any governmental agency of

this State or any county or municipal corporation that has by statute, ordinance, or court order the responsibility for the care, control, or supervision of pretrial or sentenced persons in a penal system or persons detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(ii) a contractual employee of a penal system as

defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this Section who works in a penal institution as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code;

(iii) a contractual employee of a "treatment and

detention facility" as defined in paragraph (g)(2.1) of this Code or a contractual employee of the Department of Human Services who provides supervision of persons serving a term of conditional release as defined in paragraph (g)(2.2) of this Code.

(4) "Sexual conduct" or "sexual penetration" means

any act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(5) "Probation officer" means any person employed in

a probation or court services department as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(6) "Supervising officer" means any person employed

to supervise persons placed on parole or mandatory supervised release with the duties described in Section 3-14-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) "Surveillance agent" means any person employed or

contracted to supervise persons placed on conditional release in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.3)
Sec. 11-9.3. Presence within school zone by child sex offenders prohibited; approaching, contacting, residing with, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.
(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any school building, on real property comprising any school, or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building, on the grounds or in the conveyance, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or unless the offender has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.
(a-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present within 100 feet of a site posted as a pick-up or discharge stop for a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when one or more persons under the age of 18 are present at the site.
(a-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building, a playground or recreation area within any publicly accessible privately owned building, or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.
(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter within 500 feet of a school building or real property comprising any school while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.
(b-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.
(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under the age of 18 attend. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under 18 attend if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-911).
(b-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before June 26, 2006. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a day care home or group day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821).
(b-15) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-15) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 22, 2002.
This subsection (b-15) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.
(b-20) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly communicate, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law, using the Internet or any other digital media, with a person under 18 years of age or with a person whom he or she believes to be a person under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age.
(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under the age of 18; (ii) day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) day care home; or (vii) group day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, day care home, or group day care home is operated.
(c-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, including but not limited to distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter. For the purposes of this subsection, child sex offender has the meaning as defined in this Section, but does not include as a sex offense under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section, the offense under subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to a child sex offender who is a parent or guardian of children under 18 years of age that are present in the home and other non-familial minors are not present.
(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any county fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.
(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820).
(c-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.
(c-8) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, whether authorized to do so or not, any of the following vehicles: (1) a vehicle which is specifically designed, constructed or modified and equipped to be used for the retail sale of food or beverages, including but not limited to an ice cream truck; (2) an authorized emergency vehicle; or (3) a rescue vehicle.
(d) Definitions. In this Section:
(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:
(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any

substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and the victim is a person under 18 years of age at the time of the offense; and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an

attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity

of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity

pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting

in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity

following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting

in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person

pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2

of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with

the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5),

"sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections

of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-30 (public indecency) (when committed in a school, on real property comprising a school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections

of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following

Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),
10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),
10-3 (unlawful restraint),
10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),
11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).
An attempt to commit any of these offenses.
(iv) A violation of any former law of this State

substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) or (2)(ii) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(2.5) For the purposes of subsections (b-5) and

(b-10) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections

of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding or

abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections

of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following

Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),
10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),
10-3 (unlawful restraint),
10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),
11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).
An attempt to commit any of these offenses.
(iv) A violation of any former law of this State

substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the

law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Authorized emergency vehicle", "rescue vehicle",

and "vehicle" have the meanings ascribed to them in Sections 1-105, 1-171.8 and 1-217, respectively, of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed

to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(6) "Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it

in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(7) "Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in

Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(8) "Facility providing programs or services directed

towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(9) "Group day care home" has the meaning ascribed to

it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section

16-0.1 of this Code.

(11) "Loiter" means:
(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the

person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the

person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(iii) Entering or remaining in a building in or

around school property, other than the offender's residence.

(12) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning

ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(13) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or

controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(14) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve,

bikeway, trail, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(15) "School" means a public or private preschool or

elementary or secondary school.

(16) "School official" means the principal, a

teacher, or any other certified employee of the school, the superintendent of schools or a member of the school board.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from: (1) the edge of the property of the school building or the real property comprising the school that is closest to the edge of the property of the child sex offender's residence or where he or she is loitering, and (2) the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, or facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age, to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or place where he or she is loitering.
(f) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-698, eff. 1-1-13; 97-699, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-266, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.4)
Sec. 11-9.4. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.4-1)
Sec. 11-9.4-1. Sexual predator and child sex offender; presence or loitering in or near public parks prohibited.
(a) For the purposes of this Section:
"Child sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it

in subsection (d) of Section 11-9.3 of this Code, but does not include as a sex offense under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 11-9.3, the offenses under subsections (b) and (c) of Section 11-1.50 or subsections (b) and (c) of Section 12-15 of this Code.

"Public park" includes a park, forest preserve,

bikeway, trail, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

"Loiter" means:
(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the

person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the

person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

"Sexual predator" has the meaning ascribed to it in

subsection (E) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(b) It is unlawful for a sexual predator or a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park.
(c) It is unlawful for a sexual predator or a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park. For the purposes of this subsection (c), the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park.
(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except that a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1099, eff. 1-1-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-9.5)
Sec. 11-9.5. Sexual misconduct with a person with a disability.
(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:
(1) "Person with a disability" means:
(i) a person diagnosed with a developmental

disability as defined in Section 1-106 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(ii) a person diagnosed with a mental illness as

defined in Section 1-129 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(2) "State-operated facility" means:
(i) a developmental disability facility as

defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(ii) a mental health facility as defined in the

Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(3) "Community agency" or "agency" means any

community entity or program providing residential mental health or developmental disabilities services that is licensed, certified, or funded by the Department of Human Services and not licensed or certified by any other human service agency of the State such as the Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, and Children and Family Services.

(4) "Care and custody" means admission to a

State-operated facility.

(5) "Employee" means:
(i) any person employed by the Illinois

Department of Human Services;

(ii) any person employed by a community agency

providing services at the direction of the owner or operator of the agency on or off site; or

(iii) any person who is a contractual employee or

contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency. This includes but is not limited to payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

(6) "Sexual conduct" or "sexual penetration" means

any act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(b) A person commits sexual misconduct with a person with a disability when:
(1) he or she is an employee and knowingly engages in

sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person with a disability who is under the care and custody of the Department of Human Services at a State-operated facility; or

(2) he or she is an employee of a community agency

funded by the Department of Human Services and knowingly engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person with a disability who is in a residential program operated or supervised by a community agency.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the consent of a person with a disability in custody of the Department of Human Services residing at a State-operated facility or receiving services from a community agency shall not be a defense to a prosecution under this Section. A person is deemed incapable of consent, for purposes of this Section, when he or she is a person with a disability and is receiving services at a State-operated facility or is a person with a disability who is in a residential program operated or supervised by a community agency.
(d) This Section does not apply to:
(1) any State employee or any community agency

employee who is lawfully married to a person with a disability in custody of the Department of Human Services or receiving services from a community agency if the marriage occurred before the date of custody or the initiation of services at a community agency; or

(2) any State employee or community agency employee

who has no knowledge, and would have no reason to believe, that the person with whom he or she engaged in sexual misconduct was a person with a disability in custody of the Department of Human Services or was receiving services from a community agency.

(e) Sentence. Sexual misconduct with a person with a disability is a Class 3 felony.
(f) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall immediately forfeit his or her employment with the State or the community agency.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-11)
Sec. 11-11. Sexual Relations Within Families.
(a) A person commits sexual relations within families if he or she:
(1) Commits an act of sexual penetration as defined

in Section 11-0.1 of this Code; and

(2) The person knows that he or she is related to the

other person as follows: (i) Brother or sister, either of the whole blood or the half blood; or (ii) Father or mother, when the child, regardless of legitimacy and regardless of whether the child was of the whole blood or half-blood or was adopted, was 18 years of age or over when the act was committed; or (iii) Stepfather or stepmother, when the stepchild was 18 years of age or over when the act was committed; or (iv) Aunt or uncle, when the niece or nephew was 18 years of age or over when the act was committed; or (v) Great-aunt or great-uncle, when the grand-niece or grand-nephew was 18 years of age or over when the act was committed; or (vi) Grandparent or step-grandparent, when the grandchild or step-grandchild was 18 years of age or over when the act was committed.

(b) Sentence. Sexual relations within families is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-233, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-12)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-45 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 11-12. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 81-230. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-13)
Sec. 11-13. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 15 heading)

SUBDIVISION 15. PROSTITUTION OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-14)
Sec. 11-14. Prostitution.
(a) Any person who knowingly performs, offers or agrees to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code for anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification commits an act of prostitution.
(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) (Blank).
(d) Notwithstanding the foregoing, if it is determined, after a reasonable detention for investigative purposes, that a person suspected of or charged with a violation of this Section is a person under the age of 18, that person shall be immune from prosecution for a prostitution offense under this Section, and shall be subject to the temporary protective custody provisions of Sections 2-5 and 2-6 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Pursuant to the provisions of Section 2-6 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a law enforcement officer who takes a person under 18 years of age into custody under this Section shall immediately report an allegation of a violation of Section 10-9 of this Code to the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services State Central Register, which shall commence an initial investigation into child abuse or child neglect within 24 hours pursuant to Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-538, eff. 8-23-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-14.1)
Sec. 11-14.1. Solicitation of a sexual act.
(a) Any person who offers a person not his or her spouse any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value for that person or any other person not his or her spouse to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification, commits solicitation of a sexual act.
(b) Sentence. Solicitation of a sexual act is a Class A misdemeanor. Solicitation of a sexual act from a person who is under the age of 18 or who is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled is a Class 4 felony. If the court imposes a fine under this subsection (b), it shall be collected and distributed to the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund in accordance with Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(b-5) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of solicitation of a sexual act with a person who is under the age of 18 or who is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.
(c) This Section does not apply to a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age.
(d) A person cannot be convicted under this Section if the practice of prostitution underlying the offense consists exclusively of the accused's own acts of prostitution under Section 11-14 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-14.2)
Sec. 11-14.2. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-14.3)
Sec. 11-14.3. Promoting prostitution.
(a) Any person who knowingly performs any of the following acts commits promoting prostitution:
(1) advances prostitution as defined in Section

11-0.1;

(2) profits from prostitution by:
(A) compelling a person to become a prostitute;
(B) arranging or offering to arrange a situation

in which a person may practice prostitution; or

(C) any means other than those described in

subparagraph (A) or (B), including from a person who patronizes a prostitute. This paragraph (C) does not apply to a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age. A person cannot be convicted of promoting prostitution under this paragraph (C) if the practice of prostitution underlying the offense consists exclusively of the accused's own acts of prostitution under Section 11-14 of this Code.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 4

felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 3 felony. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (a)(1), or any combination of convictions under subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2)(A), or (a)(2)(B) and Section 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), is a Class 3 felony.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B)

is a Class 4 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of subdivision (a)(2)(C) is a Class 4

felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 3 felony. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (a)(2)(C), or any combination of convictions under subdivision (a)(2)(C) and subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2)(A), or (a)(2)(B) of this Section (promoting prostitution), 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), is a Class 3 felony.

If the court imposes a fine under this subsection (b), it shall be collected and distributed to the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund in accordance with Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(Source: P.A. 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-14.4)
Sec. 11-14.4. Promoting juvenile prostitution.
(a) Any person who knowingly performs any of the following acts commits promoting juvenile prostitution:
(1) advances prostitution as defined in Section

11-0.1, where the minor engaged in prostitution, or any person engaged in prostitution in the place, is under 18 years of age or is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled at the time of the offense;

(2) profits from prostitution by any means where the

prostituted person is under 18 years of age or is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled at the time of the offense;

(3) profits from prostitution by any means where the

prostituted person is under 13 years of age at the time of the offense;

(4) confines a child under the age of 18 or a

severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person against his or her will by the infliction or threat of imminent infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement or by administering to the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, without his or her consent or by threat or deception and for other than medical purposes, any alcoholic intoxicant or a drug as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act or methamphetamine as defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and:

(A) compels the child or severely or profoundly

intellectually disabled person to engage in prostitution;

(B) arranges a situation in which the child or

severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person may practice prostitution; or

(C) profits from prostitution by the child or

severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(b) For purposes of this Section, administering drugs, as defined in subdivision (a)(4), or an alcoholic intoxicant to a child under the age of 13 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person shall be deemed to be without consent if the administering is done without the consent of the parents or legal guardian or if the administering is performed by the parents or legal guardian for other than medical purposes.
(c) If the accused did not have a reasonable opportunity to observe the prostituted person, it is an affirmative defense to a charge of promoting juvenile prostitution, except for a charge under subdivision (a)(4), that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.
(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(3) is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(4) is a Class X felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3), or any combination of convictions under subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is a Class X felony.
(e) Forfeiture. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section that involves promoting juvenile prostitution by keeping a place of juvenile prostitution or convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(4) is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(f) For the purposes of this Section, "prostituted person" means any person who engages in, or agrees or offers to engage in, any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-15) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-15)
Sec. 11-15. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-15.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-15.1)
Sec. 11-15.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-16)
Sec. 11-16. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-17) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-17)
Sec. 11-17. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-17.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-17.1)
Sec. 11-17.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-18)
Sec. 11-18. Patronizing a prostitute.
(a) Any person who knowingly performs any of the following acts with a person not his or her spouse commits patronizing a prostitute:
(1) Engages in an act of sexual penetration as

defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code with a prostitute; or

(2) Enters or remains in a place of prostitution with

intent to engage in an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code; or

(3) Engages in any touching or fondling with a

prostitute of the sex organs of one person by the other person, with the intent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification.

(b) Sentence.
Patronizing a prostitute is a Class 4 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section, or of any combination of such number of convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is guilty of a Class 3 felony. If the court imposes a fine under this subsection (b), it shall be collected and distributed to the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund in accordance with Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(c) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-18.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-18.1)
Sec. 11-18.1. Patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.
(a) Any person who engages in an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code with a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age or is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.
(a-5) Any person who engages in any touching or fondling, with a person engaged in prostitution who either is under 18 years of age or is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, of the sex organs of one person by the other person, with the intent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification, commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to the charge of patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution that the accused reasonably believed that the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.
(c) Sentence. A person who commits patronizing a juvenile prostitute is guilty of a Class 3 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section, or of any combination of such number of convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fact of such conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.
(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-19) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-19)
Sec. 11-19. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-19.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-19.1)
Sec. 11-19.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-19.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-19.2)
Sec. 11-19.2. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-19.3)
Sec. 11-19.3. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 20 heading)

SUBDIVISION 20. PORNOGRAPHY OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20)
Sec. 11-20. Obscenity.
(a) Elements of the Offense. A person commits obscenity when, with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, or recklessly failing to exercise reasonable inspection which would have disclosed the nature or content thereof, he or she:
(1) Sells, delivers or provides, or offers or agrees

to sell, deliver or provide any obscene writing, picture, record or other representation or embodiment of the obscene; or

(2) Presents or directs an obscene play, dance or

other performance or participates directly in that portion thereof which makes it obscene; or

(3) Publishes, exhibits or otherwise makes available

anything obscene; or

(4) Performs an obscene act or otherwise presents an

obscene exhibition of his or her body for gain; or

(5) Creates, buys, procures or possesses obscene

matter or material with intent to disseminate it in violation of this Section, or of the penal laws or regulations of any other jurisdiction; or

(6) Advertises or otherwise promotes the sale of

material represented or held out by him or her to be obscene, whether or not it is obscene.

(b) Obscene Defined.
Any material or performance is obscene if: (1) the average person, applying contemporary adult community standards, would find that, taken as a whole, it appeals to the prurient interest; and (2) the average person, applying contemporary adult community standards, would find that it depicts or describes, in a patently offensive way, ultimate sexual acts or sadomasochistic sexual acts, whether normal or perverted, actual or simulated, or masturbation, excretory functions or lewd exhibition of the genitals; and (3) taken as a whole, it lacks serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value.
(c) Interpretation of Evidence.
Obscenity shall be judged with reference to ordinary adults, except that it shall be judged with reference to children or other specially susceptible audiences if it appears from the character of the material or the circumstances of its dissemination to be specially designed for or directed to such an audience.
Where circumstances of production, presentation, sale, dissemination, distribution, or publicity indicate that material is being commercially exploited for the sake of its prurient appeal, such evidence is probative with respect to the nature of the matter and can justify the conclusion that the matter is lacking in serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value.
In any prosecution for an offense under this Section evidence shall be admissible to show:
(1) The character of the audience for which the

material was designed or to which it was directed;

(2) What the predominant appeal of the material would

be for ordinary adults or a special audience, and what effect, if any, it would probably have on the behavior of such people;

(3) The artistic, literary, scientific, educational

or other merits of the material, or absence thereof;

(4) The degree, if any, of public acceptance of the

material in this State;

(5) Appeal to prurient interest, or absence thereof,

in advertising or other promotion of the material;

(6) Purpose of the author, creator, publisher or

disseminator.

(d) Sentence.
Obscenity is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent offense is a Class 4 felony.
(e) Permissive Inference.
The trier of fact may infer an intent to disseminate from the creation, purchase, procurement or possession of a mold, engraved plate or other embodiment of obscenity specially adapted for reproducing multiple copies, or the possession of more than 3 copies of obscene material.
(f) Affirmative Defenses.
It shall be an affirmative defense to obscenity that the dissemination:
(1) Was not for gain and was made to personal

associates other than children under 18 years of age;

(2) Was to institutions or individuals having

scientific or other special justification for possession of such material.

(g) Forfeiture of property. A person who has been convicted previously of the offense of obscenity and who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of obscenity is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.1)
Sec. 11-20.1. Child pornography.
(a) A person commits child pornography who:
(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise

depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person where such child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act

of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act

of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any

act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being

the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act

of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or

depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture

or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content

thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme

thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or

coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other

person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof,

possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces,

entices, or coerces, a person to provide a child under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(a-5) The possession of each individual film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation. This subsection (a-5) does not apply to multiple copies of the same film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer that are identical to each other.
(b)(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.
(1.5) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.
(2) (Blank).
(3) The charge of child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.
(4) If the defendant possessed more than one of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted, then the trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.
(5) The charge of child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.
(6) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.
(c) If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
(c-5) Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. The issue of whether the child depicted is under the age of 13 is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact.
(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.
(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) or paragraph 1 of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.
In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.
(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute,

exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise,

publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.
(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create,

or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program

or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have

the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) For the purposes of this Section, "child

pornography" includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is, or appears to be, that of a person, either in part, or in total, under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such. "Child pornography" also includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is advertised, promoted, presented, described, or distributed in such a manner that conveys the impression that the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is of a person under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(g) Re-enactment; findings; purposes.
(1) The General Assembly finds and declares that:
(i) Section 50-5 of Public Act 88-680, effective

January 1, 1995, contained provisions amending the child pornography statute, Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. Section 50-5 also contained other provisions.

(ii) In addition, Public Act 88-680 was entitled

"AN ACT to create a Safe Neighborhoods Law". (A) Article 5 was entitled JUVENILE JUSTICE and amended the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. (B) Article 15 was entitled GANGS and amended various provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Unified Code of Corrections. (C) Article 20 was entitled ALCOHOL ABUSE and amended various provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code. (D) Article 25 was entitled DRUG ABUSE and amended the Cannabis Control Act and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. (E) Article 30 was entitled FIREARMS and amended the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. (F) Article 35 amended the Criminal Code of 1961, the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections. (G) Article 40 amended the Criminal Code of 1961 to increase the penalty for compelling organization membership of persons. (H) Article 45 created the Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act and amended the State Finance Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Unified Code of Corrections, and the Private Correctional Facility Moratorium Act. (I) Article 50 amended the WIC Vendor Management Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Criminal Code of 1961, the Wrongs to Children Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections.

(iii) On September 22, 1998, the Third District

Appellate Court in People v. Dainty, 701 N.E. 2d 118, ruled that Public Act 88-680 violates the single subject clause of the Illinois Constitution (Article IV, Section 8 (d)) and was unconstitutional in its entirety. As of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was still subject to appeal.

(iv) Child pornography is a vital concern to the

people of this State and the validity of future prosecutions under the child pornography statute of the Criminal Code of 1961 is in grave doubt.

(2) It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1999

to prevent or minimize any problems relating to prosecutions for child pornography that may result from challenges to the constitutional validity of Public Act 88-680 by re-enacting the Section relating to child pornography that was included in Public Act 88-680.

(3) This amendatory Act of 1999 re-enacts Section

11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as it has been amended. This re-enactment is intended to remove any question as to the validity or content of that Section; it is not intended to supersede any other Public Act that amends the text of the Section as set forth in this amendatory Act of 1999. The material is shown as existing text (i.e., without underscoring) because, as of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was subject to appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court.

(4) The re-enactment by this amendatory Act of 1999

of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to child pornography that was amended by Public Act 88-680 is not intended, and shall not be construed, to imply that Public Act 88-680 is invalid or to limit or impair any legal argument concerning whether those provisions were substantially re-enacted by other Public Acts.

(Source: P.A. 97-157, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-995, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-437, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1A)
Sec. 11-20.1A. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-579, eff. 6-1-08. Repealed by P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1B)
Sec. 11-20.1B. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13. Repealed by P.A. 97-995, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.2)
Sec. 11-20.2. Duty of commercial film and photographic print processors or computer technicians to report sexual depiction of children.
(a) Any commercial film and photographic print processor or computer technician who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of his professional capacity or employment, any film, photograph, videotape, negative, slide, computer hard drive or any other magnetic or optical media which depicts a child whom the processor or computer technician knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 where such child is:
(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of

sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of

sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of

masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the

object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of

excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted

as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or

setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person;

shall report or cause a report to be made pursuant to subsections (b) and (c) as soon as reasonably possible. Failure to make such report shall be a business offense with a fine of $1,000.
(b) Commercial film and photographic film processors shall report or cause a report to be made to the local law enforcement agency of the jurisdiction in which the image or images described in subsection (a) are discovered.
(c) Computer technicians shall report or cause the report to be made to the local law enforcement agency of the jurisdiction in which the image or images described in subsection (a) are discovered or to the Illinois Child Exploitation e-Tipline at reportchildporn@atg.state.il.us.
(d) Reports required by this Act shall include the following information: (i) name, address, and telephone number of the person filing the report; (ii) the employer of the person filing the report, if any; (iii) the name, address and telephone number of the person whose property is the subject of the report, if known; (iv) the circumstances which led to the filing of the report, including a description of the reported content.
(e) If a report is filed with the Cyber Tipline at the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children or in accordance with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 13032, the requirements of this Act will be deemed to have been met.
(f) A computer technician or an employer caused to report child pornography under this Section is immune from any criminal, civil, or administrative liability in connection with making the report, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
(g) For the purposes of this Section, a "computer technician" is a person who installs, maintains, troubleshoots, repairs or upgrades computer hardware, software, computer networks, peripheral equipment, electronic mail systems, or provides user assistance for any of the aforementioned tasks.
(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-20.3)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-20.1B by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 11-20.3. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-21) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-21)
Sec. 11-21. Harmful material.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Distribute" means to transfer possession of, whether

with or without consideration.

"Harmful to minors" means that quality of any

description or representation, in whatever form, of nudity, sexual conduct, sexual excitement, or sado-masochistic abuse, when, taken as a whole, it (i) predominately appeals to the prurient interest in sex of minors, (ii) is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community in the State as a whole with respect to what is suitable material for minors, and (iii) lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value for minors.

"Knowingly" means having knowledge of the contents of

the subject matter, or recklessly failing to exercise reasonable inspection which would have disclosed the contents.

"Material" means (i) any picture, photograph,

drawing, sculpture, film, video game, computer game, video or similar visual depiction, including any such representation or image which is stored electronically, or (ii) any book, magazine, printed matter however reproduced, or recorded audio of any sort.

"Minor" means any person under the age of 18.
"Nudity" means the showing of the human male or

female genitals, pubic area or buttocks with less than a fully opaque covering, or the showing of the female breast with less than a fully opaque covering of any portion below the top of the nipple, or the depiction of covered male genitals in a discernably turgid state.

"Sado-masochistic abuse" means flagellation or

torture by or upon a person clad in undergarments, a mask or bizarre costume, or the condition of being fettered, bound or otherwise physically restrained on the part of one clothed for sexual gratification or stimulation.

"Sexual conduct" means acts of masturbation, sexual

intercourse, or physical contact with a person's clothed or unclothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks or, if such person be a female, breast.

"Sexual excitement" means the condition of human male

or female genitals when in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal.

(b) A person is guilty of distributing harmful material to a minor when he or she:
(1) knowingly sells, lends, distributes, exhibits to,

depicts to, or gives away to a minor, knowing that the minor is under the age of 18 or failing to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the person's true age:

(A) any material which depicts nudity, sexual

conduct or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct or sado-masochistic abuse, and which taken as a whole is harmful to minors;

(B) a motion picture, show, or other presentation

which depicts nudity, sexual conduct or sado-masochistic abuse and is harmful to minors; or

(C) an admission ticket or pass to premises where

there is exhibited or to be exhibited such a motion picture, show, or other presentation; or

(2) admits a minor to premises where there is

exhibited or to be exhibited such a motion picture, show, or other presentation, knowing that the minor is a person under the age of 18 or failing to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the person's true age.

(c) In any prosecution arising under this Section, it is an affirmative defense:
(1) that the minor as to whom the offense is alleged

to have been committed exhibited to the accused a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which was relied upon by the accused;

(2) that the defendant was in a parental or

guardianship relationship with the minor or that the minor was accompanied by a parent or legal guardian;

(3) that the defendant was a bona fide school,

museum, or public library, or was a person acting in the course of his or her employment as an employee or official of such organization or retail outlet affiliated with and serving the educational purpose of such organization;

(4) that the act charged was committed in aid of

legitimate scientific or educational purposes; or

(5) that an advertisement of harmful material as

defined in this Section culminated in the sale or distribution of such harmful material to a child under circumstances where there was no personal confrontation of the child by the defendant, his or her employees, or agents, as where the order or request for such harmful material was transmitted by mail, telephone, Internet or similar means of communication, and delivery of such harmful material to the child was by mail, freight, Internet or similar means of transport, which advertisement contained the following statement, or a substantially similar statement, and that the defendant required the purchaser to certify that he or she was not under the age of 18 and that the purchaser falsely stated that he or she was not under the age of 18: "NOTICE: It is unlawful for any person under the age of 18 to purchase the matter advertised. Any person under the age of 18 that falsely states that he or she is not under the age of 18 for the purpose of obtaining the material advertised is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor under the laws of the State."

(d) The predominant appeal to prurient interest of the material shall be judged with reference to average children of the same general age of the child to whom such material was sold, lent, distributed or given, unless it appears from the nature of the matter or the circumstances of its dissemination or distribution that it is designed for specially susceptible groups, in which case the predominant appeal of the material shall be judged with reference to its intended or probable recipient group.
(e) Distribution of harmful material in violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent offense is a Class 4 felony.
(f) Any person under the age of 18 who falsely states, either orally or in writing, that he or she is not under the age of 18, or who presents or offers to any person any evidence of age and identity that is false or not actually his or her own with the intent of ordering, obtaining, viewing, or otherwise procuring or attempting to procure or view any harmful material is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
(g) A person over the age of 18 who fails to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the true age of a minor, knowingly distributes to, or sends, or causes to be sent, or exhibits to, or offers to distribute, or exhibits any harmful material to a person that he or she believes is a minor is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. If that person utilized a computer web camera, cellular telephone, or any other type of device to manufacture the harmful material, then each offense is a Class 4 felony.
(h) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-280, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-22) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-22)
Sec. 11-22. Tie-in sales of obscene publications to distributors.
Any person, firm or corporation, or any agent, officer or employee thereof, engaged in the business of distributing books, magazines, periodicals, comic books or other publications to retail dealers, who shall refuse to furnish to any retail dealer such quantity of books, magazines, periodicals, comic books or other publications as such retail dealer normally sells because the retail dealer refuses to sell, or offer for sale, any books, magazines, periodicals, comic books or other publications which are obscene, lewd, lascivious, filthy or indecent is guilty of a petty offense. Each publication sold or delivered in violation of this Act shall constitute a separate petty offense.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-23)
Sec. 11-23. Posting of identifying or graphic information on a pornographic Internet site or possessing graphic information with pornographic material.
(a) A person at least 17 years of age who knowingly discloses on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site the name, address, telephone number, or e-mail address of a person under 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense or of a person at least 17 years of age without the consent of the person at least 17 years of age is guilty of posting of identifying information on a pornographic Internet site.
(a-5) Any person who knowingly places, posts, reproduces, or maintains on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site a photograph, video, or digital image of a person under 18 years of age that is not child pornography under Section 11-20.1, without the knowledge and consent of the person under 18 years of age, is guilty of posting of graphic information on a pornographic Internet site. This provision applies even if the person under 18 years of age is fully or properly clothed in the photograph, video, or digital image.
(a-10) Any person who knowingly places, posts, reproduces, or maintains on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site, or possesses with obscene or child pornographic material a photograph, video, or digital image of a person under 18 years of age in which the child is posed in a suggestive manner with the focus or concentration of the image on the child's clothed genitals, clothed pubic area, clothed buttocks area, or if the child is female, the breast exposed through transparent clothing, and the photograph, video, or digital image is not child pornography under Section 11-20.1, is guilty of posting of graphic information on a pornographic Internet site or possessing graphic information with pornographic material.
(b) Sentence. A person who violates subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the victim is at least 17 years of age at the time of the offense and a Class 3 felony if the victim is under 17 years of age at the time of the offense. A person who violates subsection (a-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who violates subsection (a-10) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Adult obscenity or child pornography Internet

site" means a site on the Internet that contains material that is obscene as defined in Section 11-20 of this Code or that is child pornography as defined in Section 11-20.1 of this Code.

(2) "Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section

16-0.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-23.5)
(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)
Sec. 11-23.5. Non-consensual dissemination of private sexual images.
(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
"Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the

meanings ascribed to them in Section 17-0.5 of this Code.

"Image" includes a photograph, film, videotape,

digital recording, or other depiction or portrayal of an object, including a human body.

"Intimate parts" means the fully unclothed, partially

unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, anus, or if the person is female, a partially or fully exposed nipple, including exposure through transparent clothing.

"Sexual act" means sexual penetration, masturbation,

or sexual activity.

"Sexual activity" means any:
(1) knowing touching or fondling by the victim or

another person or animal, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, anus, or breast of the victim or another person or animal for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal; or

(2) any transfer or transmission of semen upon

any part of the clothed or unclothed body of the victim, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the victim or another; or

(3) an act of urination within a sexual context;

or

(4) any bondage, fetter, or sadism masochism; or
(5) sadomasochism abuse in any sexual context.
(b) A person commits non-consensual dissemination of private sexual images when he or she:
(1) intentionally disseminates an image of another

person:

(A) who is at least 18 years of age; and
(B) who is identifiable from the image itself or

information displayed in connection with the image; and

(C) who is engaged in a sexual act or whose

intimate parts are exposed, in whole or in part; and

(2) obtains the image under circumstances in which a

reasonable person would know or understand that the image was to remain private; and

(3) knows or should have known that the person in the

image has not consented to the dissemination.

(c) The following activities are exempt from the provisions of this Section:
(1) The intentional dissemination of an image of

another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination is made for the purpose of a criminal investigation that is otherwise lawful.

(2) The intentional dissemination of an image of

another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination is for the purpose of, or in connection with, the reporting of unlawful conduct.

(3) The intentional dissemination of an image of

another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the images involve voluntary exposure in public or commercial settings.

(4) The intentional dissemination of an image of

another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination serves a lawful public purpose.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose liability upon the following entities solely as a result of content or information provided by another person:
(1) an interactive computer service, as defined in 47

U.S.C. 230(f)(2);

(2) a provider of public mobile services or private

radio services, as defined in Section 13-214 of the Public Utilities Act; or

(3) a telecommunications network or broadband

provider.

(e) A person convicted under this Section is subject to the forfeiture provisions in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(f) Sentence. Non-consensual dissemination of private sexual images is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 98-1138, eff. 6-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-24)
Sec. 11-24. Child photography by sex offender.
(a) In this Section:
"Child" means a person under 18 years of age.
"Child sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.
(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly:
(1) conduct or operate any type of business in

which he or she photographs, videotapes, or takes a digital image of a child; or

(2) conduct or operate any type of business in

which he or she instructs or directs another person to photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of a child; or

(3) photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of

a child, or instruct or direct another person to photograph, videotape, or take a digital image of a child without the consent of the parent or guardian.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony. A person who violates this Section at a playground, park facility, school, forest preserve, day care facility, or at a facility providing programs or services directed to persons under 17 years of age is guilty of a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Subdiv. 25 heading)

SUBDIVISION 25. OTHER OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-25)
Sec. 11-25. Grooming.
(a) A person commits grooming when he or she knowingly uses a computer on-line service, Internet service, local bulletin board service, or any other device capable of electronic data storage or transmission to seduce, solicit, lure, or entice, or attempt to seduce, solicit, lure, or entice, a child, a child's guardian, or another person believed by the person to be a child or a child's guardian, to commit any sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, to distribute photographs depicting the sex organs of the child, or to otherwise engage in any unlawful sexual conduct with a child or with another person believed by the person to be a child.
(b) Sentence. Grooming is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 98-919, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-26)
Sec. 11-26. Traveling to meet a minor.
(a) A person commits the offense of traveling to meet a minor when he or she travels any distance either within this State, to this State, or from this State by any means, attempts to do so, or causes another to do so or attempt to do so for the purpose of engaging in any sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, or to otherwise engage in other unlawful sexual conduct with a child or with another person believed by the person to be a child after using a computer on-line service, Internet service, local bulletin board service, or any other device capable of electronic data storage or transmission to seduce, solicit, lure, or entice, or to attempt to seduce, solicit, lure, or entice, a child or a child's guardian, or another person believed by the person to be a child or a child's guardian, for such purpose.
(b) Sentence. Traveling to meet a minor is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 95-901, eff. 1-1-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/11-9)
Sec. 11-30. Public indecency.
(a) Any person of the age of 17 years and upwards who performs any of the following acts in a public place commits a public indecency:
(1) An act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct; or
(2) A lewd exposure of the body done with intent to

arouse or to satisfy the sexual desire of the person.

Breast-feeding of infants is not an act of public indecency.
(b) "Public place" for purposes of this Section means any place where the conduct may reasonably be expected to be viewed by others.
(c) Sentence.
Public indecency is a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a third or subsequent violation for public indecency is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Public indecency is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person 18 years of age or older who is on or within 500 feet of elementary or secondary school grounds when children are present on the grounds.
(Source: P.A. 96-1098, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-35) (was 720 ILCS 5/11-7)
Sec. 11-35. Adultery.
(a) A person commits adultery when he or she has sexual intercourse with another not his or her spouse, if the behavior is open and notorious, and
(1) The person is married and knows the other person involved in such intercourse is not his spouse; or
(2) The person is not married and knows that the other person involved in such intercourse is married.
A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if his liability is based solely on evidence he has given in order to comply with the requirements of Section 4-1.7 of "The Illinois Public Aid Code", approved April 11, 1967, as amended.
(b) Sentence.
Adultery is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-40) (was 720 ILCS 5/11-8)
Sec. 11-40. Fornication.
(a) A person commits fornication when he or she knowingly has sexual intercourse with another not his or her spouse if the behavior is open and notorious.
A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if his liability is based solely on evidence he has given in order to comply with the requirements of Section 4-1.7 of "The Illinois Public Aid Code", approved April 11, 1967, as amended.
(b) Sentence.
Fornication is a Class B misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/11-45) (was 720 ILCS 5/11-12)
Sec. 11-45. Bigamy and Marrying a bigamist.
(a) Bigamy. A person commits bigamy when that person has a husband or wife and subsequently knowingly marries another.
(a-5) Marrying a bigamist. An unmarried person commits marrying a bigamist when that person knowingly marries another under circumstances known to him or her which would render the other person guilty of bigamy under the laws of this State.
(b) It shall be an affirmative defense to bigamy and marrying a bigamist that:
(1) The prior marriage was dissolved or declared

invalid; or

(2) The accused reasonably believed the prior spouse

to be dead; or

(3) The prior spouse had been continually absent for

a period of 5 years during which time the accused did not know the prior spouse to be alive; or

(4) The accused reasonably believed that he or she or

the person he or she marries was legally eligible to be married.

(c) Sentence.
Bigamy is a Class 4 felony. Marrying a bigamist is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12 heading)

ARTICLE 12. BODILY HARM




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. DEFINITIONS
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-0.1)
Sec. 12-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:
"Bona fide labor dispute" means any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions, or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.
"Coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducts an athletic contest.
"Correctional institution employee" means a person employed by a penal institution.
"Emergency medical technician" includes a paramedic, ambulance driver, first aid worker, hospital worker, or other medical assistance worker.
"Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren, and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in Section 12-4.4a of this Code. For purposes of this Article, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.
"In the presence of a child" means in the physical presence of a child or knowing or having reason to know that a child is present and may see or hear an act constituting an offense.
"Park district employee" means a supervisor, director, instructor, or other person employed by a park district.
"Physically handicapped person" means a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition.
"Private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.
"Probation officer" means a person as defined in the Probation and Probation Officers Act.
"Sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee.
"Sports venue" means a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, or amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park, during the 12 hours before or after the sanctioned sporting event.
"Streetgang", "streetgang member", and "criminal street gang" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
"Transit employee" means a driver, operator, or employee of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire.
"Transit passenger" means a passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire, including a passenger using any area designated by a transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location.
"Utility worker" means any of the following:
(1) A person employed by a public utility as defined

in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

(2) An employee of a municipally owned utility.
(3) An employee of a cable television company.
(4) An employee of an electric cooperative as defined

in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act.

(5) An independent contractor or an employee of an

independent contractor working on behalf of a cable television company, public utility, municipally owned utility, or electric cooperative.

(6) An employee of a telecommunications carrier as

defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telecommunications carrier.

(7) An employee of a telephone or telecommunications

cooperative as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. ASSAULT AND BATTERY
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-1)
Sec. 12-1. Assault.
(a) A person commits an assault when, without lawful authority, he or she knowingly engages in conduct which places another in reasonable apprehension of receiving a battery.
(b) Sentence. Assault is a Class C misdemeanor.
(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of assault to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.
This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)
Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.
(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.
(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:
(1) A physically handicapped person or a person 60

years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds

or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or

grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer,

fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:
(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing

his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county

juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal

corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official

duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating

in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under

Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:
(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in

the Air Rifle Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor

vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.
(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her

identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines

or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the

firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in

a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in

a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense

with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.
(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-225, eff. 7-28-11; 97-313, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-2.5)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.02 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-2.5. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 88-467. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-2.6)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.3 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-2.6. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 94-743, eff. 5-8-06. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3)
Sec. 12-3. Battery.
(a) A person commits battery if he or she knowingly without legal justification by any means (1) causes bodily harm to an individual or (2) makes physical contact of an insulting or provoking nature with an individual.
(b) Sentence.
Battery is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)
Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.
(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:
(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability

or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great

bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability

or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability

or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.
(b) Offense based on injury to a child or intellectually disabled person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:
(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability

or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement

to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.
(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:
(1) A person 60 years of age or older.
(2) A person who is pregnant or physically

handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds

or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer,

fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency

medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois,

a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official

duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.
(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged

commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under

Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her

duties as a nurse.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:
(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or

a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or

a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or

a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a

person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or

her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:
(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a

firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her

identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines

or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with

the intent to disseminate the recording.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:
(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled

Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes

him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a

correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.
Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:
(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous

instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent

disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a

violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.
Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:
(1) if the person committed the offense while armed

with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the

person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the

person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.
"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.
"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.
"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.
"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.
"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-369, eff. 1-1-14; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.1)
Sec. 12-3.1. Battery of an unborn child; aggravated battery of an unborn child.
(a) A person commits battery of an unborn child if he or she knowingly without legal justification and by any means causes bodily harm to an unborn child.
(a-5) A person commits aggravated battery of an unborn child when, in committing a battery of an unborn child, he or she knowingly causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an unborn child.
(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is harmed.
(c) Sentence. Battery of an unborn child is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated battery of an unborn child is a Class 2 felony.
(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause bodily harm to an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as amended, to which the pregnant woman has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.2)
Sec. 12-3.2. Domestic battery.
(a) A person commits domestic battery if he or she knowingly without legal justification by any means:
(1) causes bodily harm to any family or household

member;

(2) makes physical contact of an insulting or

provoking nature with any family or household member.

(b) Sentence. Domestic battery is a Class A misdemeanor. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), or aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense that is substantially similar to the offenses listed in this Section, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has one or 2 prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or one or 2 prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 3 felony if the defendant had 3 prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or 3 prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 2 felony if the defendant had 4 or more prior convictions under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2), or 4 or more prior convictions under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense which is substantially similar. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, for any second or subsequent conviction of violating this Section, the offender shall be mandatorily sentenced to a minimum of 72 consecutive hours of imprisonment. The imprisonment shall not be subject to suspension, nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence.
(c) Domestic battery committed in the presence of a child. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, a defendant who commits, in the presence of a child, a felony domestic battery (enhanced under subsection (b)), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), or aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1) against a family or household member shall be required to serve a mandatory minimum imprisonment of 10 days or perform 300 hours of community service, or both. The defendant shall further be liable for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections. For purposes of this Section, "child" means a person under 18 years of age who is the defendant's or victim's child or step-child or who is a minor child residing within or visiting the household of the defendant or victim.
(d) Upon conviction of domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-187, eff. 1-1-14; 98-994, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.3)
Sec. 12-3.3. Aggravated domestic battery.
(a) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, knowingly causes great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement commits aggravated domestic battery.
(a-5) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, strangles another individual commits aggravated domestic battery. For the purposes of this subsection (a-5), "strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.
(b) Sentence. Aggravated domestic battery is a Class 2 felony. Any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction for an offense under this Section must include, in addition to any other condition of probation or conditional discharge, a condition that the offender serve a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 60 consecutive days. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section must be sentenced to a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years or an extended term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 14 years.
(c) Upon conviction of aggravated domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of aggravated domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.
(Source: P.A. 96-287, eff. 8-11-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.4) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-30)
Sec. 12-3.4. Violation of an order of protection.
(a) A person commits violation of an order of protection if:
(1) He or she knowingly commits an act which was

prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered by a court in violation of:

(i) a remedy in a valid order of protection

authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to

the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14) or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory,

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a

crime against the protected parties as the term protected parties is defined in Section 112A-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

(2) Such violation occurs after the offender has been

served notice of the contents of the order, pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

An order of protection issued by a state, tribal or territorial court related to domestic or family violence shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity where an order is certified and appears authentic on its face. For purposes of this Section, an "order of protection" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.
(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign order of protection.
(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.
(c) The limitations placed on law enforcement liability by Section 305 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 apply to actions taken under this Section.
(d) Violation of an order of protection is a Class A misdemeanor. Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2) or violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30) or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged in this State as a domestic battery or violation of an order of protection. Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or a violation of any former law of this State that is substantially similar to any listed offense, or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged in this State as one of the offenses listed in this Section, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member as defined in Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The court shall impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for defendant's second or subsequent violation of any order of protection; unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or such period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust. In addition to any other penalties, the court may order the defendant to pay a fine as authorized under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections. In addition to any other penalties, including those imposed by Section 5-9-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the court shall impose an additional fine of $20 as authorized by Section 5-9-1.11 of the Unified Code of Corrections upon any person convicted of or placed on supervision for a violation of this Section. The additional fine shall be imposed for each violation of this Section.
(e) (Blank).
(f) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-919, eff. 8-10-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-6.3)
Sec. 12-3.5. Interfering with the reporting of domestic violence.
(a) A person commits interfering with the reporting of domestic violence when, after having committed an act of domestic violence, he or she knowingly prevents or attempts to prevent the victim of or a witness to the act of domestic violence from calling a 9-1-1 emergency telephone system, obtaining medical assistance, or making a report to any law enforcement official.
(b) For the purposes of this Section:
"Domestic violence" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(c) Sentence. Interfering with the reporting of domestic violence is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-3.6) (was 720 ILCS 5/45-1 and 5/45-2)
Sec. 12-3.6. Disclosing location of domestic violence victim.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Domestic violence" means attempting to cause or causing abuse of a family or household member or high-risk adult with disabilities, or attempting to cause or causing neglect or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities which threatens the adult's health and safety.
"Family or household member" means a spouse, person living as a spouse, parent, or other adult person related by consanguinity or affinity, who is residing or has resided with the person committing domestic violence. "Family or household member" includes a high-risk adult with disabilities who resides with or receives care from any person who has the responsibility for a high-risk adult as a result of a family relationship or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an adult with disabilities voluntarily, by express or implied contract, or by court order.
"High-risk adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 or over whose physical or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
"Abuse", "exploitation", and "neglect" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
(b) A person commits disclosure of location of domestic violence victim when he or she publishes, disseminates or otherwise discloses the location of any domestic violence victim, without that person's authorization, knowing the disclosure will result in, or has the substantial likelihood of resulting in, the threat of bodily harm.
(c) Nothing in this Section shall apply to confidential communications between an attorney and his or her client.
(d) Sentence. Disclosure of location of domestic violence victim is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.05 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-4. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-467, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.1)
Sec. 12-4.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 91-121, eff. 7-15-99. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.2)
Sec. 12-4.2. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2-5)
Sec. 12-4.2-5. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.3)
Sec. 12-4.3. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.4)
Sec. 12-4.4. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 84-1414. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. ENDANGERMENT
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4a)
Sec. 12-4.4a. Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident; criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.
(a) Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.
(1) A person or an owner or licensee commits abuse of

a long term care facility resident when he or she knowingly causes any physical or mental injury to, or commits any sexual offense in this Code against, a resident.

(2) A person or an owner or licensee commits criminal

neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she recklessly:

(A) performs acts that cause a resident's life to

be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or

reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of a resident, and that failure causes the resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate; or

(C) abandons a resident.
(3) A person or an owner or licensee commits neglect

of a long term care facility resident when he or she negligently fails to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance to the resident which results in physical or mental injury or deterioration of the resident's physical or mental condition. An owner or licensee is guilty under this subdivision (a)(3), however, only if the owner or licensee failed to exercise reasonable care in the hiring, training, supervising, or providing of staff or other related routine administrative responsibilities.

(b) Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.
(1) A caregiver commits criminal abuse or neglect of

an elderly person or person with a disability when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(A) performs acts that cause the person's life to

be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or

reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of the person, and that failure causes the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(C) abandons the person;
(D) physically abuses, harasses, intimidates, or

interferes with the personal liberty of the person; or

(E) exposes the person to willful deprivation.
(2) It is not a defense to criminal abuse or neglect

of an elderly person or person with a disability that the caregiver reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability.

(c) Offense not applicable.
(1) Nothing in this Section applies to a physician

licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a duly licensed nurse providing care within the scope of his or her professional judgment and within the accepted standards of care within the community.

(2) Nothing in this Section imposes criminal

liability on a caregiver who made a good faith effort to provide for the health and personal care of an elderly person or person with a disability, but through no fault of his or her own was unable to provide such care.

(3) Nothing in this Section applies to the medical

supervision, regulation, or control of the remedial care or treatment of residents in a long term care facility conducted for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination as described in Section 3-803 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 1-102 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or Section 3-803 of the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(4) Nothing in this Section prohibits a caregiver

from providing treatment to an elderly person or person with a disability by spiritual means through prayer alone and care consistent therewith in lieu of medical care and treatment in accordance with the tenets and practices of any church or religious denomination of which the elderly person or person with a disability is a member.

(5) Nothing in this Section limits the remedies

available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(d) Sentence.
(1) Long term care facility. Abuse of a long term

care facility resident is a Class 3 felony. Criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident is a Class 4 felony, unless it results in the resident's death in which case it is a Class 3 felony. Neglect of a long term care facility resident is a petty offense.

(2) Caregiver. Criminal abuse or neglect of an

elderly person or person with a disability is a Class 3 felony, unless it results in the person's death in which case it is a Class 2 felony, and if imprisonment is imposed it shall be for a minimum term of 3 years and a maximum term of 14 years.

(e) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
"Abandon" means to desert or knowingly forsake a resident or an elderly person or person with a disability under circumstances in which a reasonable person would continue to provide care and custody.
"Caregiver" means a person who has a duty to provide for an elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care, at the elderly person or person with a disability's place of residence, including, but not limited to, food and nutrition, shelter, hygiene, prescribed medication, and medical care and treatment, and includes any of the following:
(1) A parent, spouse, adult child, or other relative

by blood or marriage who resides with or resides in the same building with or regularly visits the elderly person or person with a disability, knows or reasonably should know of such person's physical or mental impairment, and knows or reasonably should know that such person is unable to adequately provide for his or her own health and personal care.

(2) A person who is employed by the elderly person or

person with a disability or by another to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(3) A person who has agreed for consideration to

reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(4) A person who has been appointed by a private or

public agency or by a court of competent jurisdiction to provide for the elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care.

"Caregiver" does not include a long-term care facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed or certified under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or any administrative, medical, or other personnel of such a facility, or a health care provider who is licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and renders care in the ordinary course of his or her profession.
"Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older who is incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.
"Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed to operate a facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
"Long term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by the State of Illinois or a political subdivision thereof, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care, or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the owner by blood or marriage. The term also includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as defined in Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act and assisted living establishments and shared housing establishments licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
"Owner" means the owner a long term care facility as provided in the Nursing Home Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the owner of a facility as provided in the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the owner of an assisted living or shared housing establishment as provided in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition, which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.
"Resident" means a person residing in a long term care facility.
"Willful deprivation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (15) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, and 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.5) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.5)
Sec. 12-4.5. Tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics.
(a) A person who knowingly puts any substance capable of causing death or great bodily harm to a human being into any food, drug or cosmetic offered for sale or consumption commits tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics.
(b) Sentence. Tampering with food, drugs or cosmetics is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.6) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.6)
Sec. 12-4.6. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 85-1177. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.7) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.7)
Sec. 12-4.7. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 92-256, eff. 1-1-02. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.8)
Sec. 12-4.8. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.9)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-45 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-4.9. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 89-632, eff. 1-1-97. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.10)
Sec. 12-4.10. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.11)
Sec. 12-4.11. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-340, eff. 7-24-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-4.12)
Sec. 12-4.12. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5)
Sec. 12-5. Reckless conduct.
(a) A person commits reckless conduct when he or she, by any means lawful or unlawful, recklessly performs an act or acts that:
(1) cause bodily harm to or endanger the safety of

another person; or

(2) cause great bodily harm or permanent disability

or disfigurement to another person.

(b) Sentence.
Reckless conduct under subdivision (a)(1) is a Class A misdemeanor. Reckless conduct under subdivision (a)(2) is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.01) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-16.2)
Sec. 12-5.01. Criminal transmission of HIV.
(a) A person commits criminal transmission of HIV when he or she, with the specific intent to commit the offense:
(1) engages in sexual activity with another without

the use of a condom knowing that he or she is infected with HIV;

(2) transfers, donates, or provides his or her blood,

tissue, semen, organs, or other potentially infectious body fluids for transfusion, transplantation, insemination, or other administration to another knowing that he or she is infected with HIV; or

(3) dispenses, delivers, exchanges, sells, or in any

other way transfers to another any nonsterile intravenous or intramuscular drug paraphernalia knowing that he or she is infected with HIV.

(b) For purposes of this Section:
"HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
"Sexual activity" means the insertive vaginal or anal intercourse on the part of an infected male, receptive consensual vaginal intercourse on the part of an infected woman with a male partner, or receptive consensual anal intercourse on the part of an infected man or woman with a male partner.
"Intravenous or intramuscular drug paraphernalia" means any equipment, product, or material of any kind which is peculiar to and marketed for use in injecting a substance into the human body.
(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that an infection with HIV has occurred in order for a person to have committed criminal transmission of HIV.
(d) It shall be an affirmative defense that the person exposed knew that the infected person was infected with HIV, knew that the action could result in infection with HIV, and consented to the action with that knowledge.
(d-5) A court, upon a finding of reasonable suspicion that an individual has committed the crime of criminal transmission of HIV, shall order the production of records of a person accused of the offense of criminal transmission of HIV or the attendance of a person with relevant knowledge thereof so long as the return of the records or attendance of the person pursuant to the subpoena is submitted initially to the court for an in camera inspection. Only upon a finding by the court that the records or proffered testimony are relevant to the pending offense, the information produced pursuant to the court's order shall be disclosed to the prosecuting entity and admissible if otherwise permitted by law.
(e) A person who commits criminal transmission of HIV commits a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1046, eff. 8-21-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.02) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-2.5)
Sec. 12-5.02. Vehicular endangerment.
(a) A person commits vehicular endangerment when he or she strikes a motor vehicle by causing an object to fall from an overpass in the direction of a moving motor vehicle with the intent to strike a motor vehicle while it is traveling upon a highway in this State.
(b) Sentence. Vehicular endangerment is a Class 2 felony, unless death results, in which case vehicular endangerment is a Class 1 felony.
(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
"Object" means any object or substance that by its size, weight, or consistency is likely to cause great bodily harm to any occupant of a motor vehicle.
"Overpass" means any structure that passes over a highway.
"Motor vehicle" and "highway" have the meanings as defined in the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5.1)
Sec. 12-5.1. Criminal housing management.
(a) A person commits criminal housing management when, having personal management or control of residential real estate, whether as a legal or equitable owner or as a managing agent or otherwise, he or she recklessly permits the physical condition or facilities of the residential real estate to become or remain in any condition which endangers the health or safety of a person other than the defendant.
(b) Sentence.
Criminal housing management is a Class A misdemeanor, and a subsequent conviction is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.1a) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-5.15)
Sec. 12-5.1a. Aggravated criminal housing management.
(a) A person commits aggravated criminal housing management when he or she commits criminal housing management and:
(1) the condition endangering the health or safety of

a person other than the defendant is determined to be a contributing factor in the death of that person; and

(2) the person recklessly conceals or attempts to

conceal the condition that endangered the health or safety of the person other than the defendant that is found to be a contributing factor in that death.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated criminal housing management is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-5.2)
Sec. 12-5.2. Injunction in connection with criminal housing management or aggravated criminal housing management.
(a) In addition to any other remedies, the State's Attorney of the county where the residential property which endangers the health or safety of any person exists is authorized to file a complaint and apply to the circuit court for a temporary restraining order, and such circuit court shall upon hearing grant a temporary restraining order or a preliminary or permanent injunction, without bond, restraining any person who owns, manages, or has any equitable interest in the property, from collecting, receiving or benefiting from any rents or other monies available from the property, so long as the property remains in a condition which endangers the health or safety of any person.
(b) The court may order any rents or other monies owed to be paid into an escrow account. The funds are to be paid out of the escrow account only to satisfy the reasonable cost of necessary repairs of the property which had been incurred or will be incurred in ameliorating the condition of the property as described in subsection (a), payment of delinquent real estate taxes on the property or payment of other legal debts relating to the property. The court may order that funds remain in escrow for a reasonable time after the completion of all necessary repairs to assure continued upkeep of the property and satisfaction of other outstanding legal debts of the property.
(c) The owner shall be responsible for contracting to have necessary repairs completed and shall be required to submit all bills, together with certificates of completion, to the manager of the escrow account within 30 days after their receipt by the owner.
(d) In contracting for any repairs required pursuant to this Section the owner of the property shall enter into a contract only after receiving bids from at least 3 independent contractors capable of making the necessary repairs. If the owner does not contract for the repairs with the lowest bidder, he shall file an affidavit with the court explaining why the lowest bid was not acceptable. At no time, under the provisions of this Section, shall the owner contract with anyone who is not a licensed contractor, except that a contractor need not be licensed if neither the State nor the county, township, or municipality where the residential real estate is located requires that the contractor be licensed. The court may order release of those funds in the escrow account that are in excess of the monies that the court determines to its satisfaction are needed to correct the condition of the property as described in subsection (a).
For the purposes of this Section, "licensed contractor" means: (i) a contractor licensed by the State, if the State requires the licensure of the contractor; or (ii) a contractor licensed by the county, township, or municipality where the residential real estate is located, if that jurisdiction requires the licensure of the contractor.
(e) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall maintain a separate trust account entitled "Property Improvement Trust Account", which shall serve as the depository for the escrowed funds prescribed by this Section. The Clerk of the Court shall be responsible for the receipt, disbursement, monitoring and maintenance of all funds entrusted to this account, and shall provide to the court a quarterly accounting of the activities for any property, with funds in such account, unless the court orders accountings on a more frequent basis.
The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall promulgate rules and procedures to administer the provisions of this Act.
(f) Nothing in this Section shall in any way be construed to limit or alter any existing liability incurred, or to be incurred, by the owner or manager except as expressly provided in this Act. Nor shall anything in this Section be construed to create any liability on behalf of the Clerk of the Court, the State's Attorney's office or any other governmental agency involved in this action.
Nor shall anything in this Section be construed to authorize tenants to refrain from paying rent.
(g) Costs. As part of the costs of an action under this Section, the court shall assess a reasonable fee against the defendant to be paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court. This amount is to be used solely for the maintenance of the Property Improvement Trust Account. No money obtained directly or indirectly from the property subject to the case may be used to satisfy this cost.
(h) The municipal building department or other entity responsible for inspection of property and the enforcement of such local requirements shall, within 5 business days of a request by the State's Attorney, provide all documents requested, which shall include, but not be limited to, all records of inspections, permits and other information relating to any property.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.3) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-2.6)
Sec. 12-5.3. Use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense.
(a) A person commits use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense when that person knowingly exercises control over any place with the intent to use that place to manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or to manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver cannabis in violation of Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 8 of the Cannabis Control Act and:
(1) the place, by virtue of the presence of the

substance or substances used or intended to be used to manufacture a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis, presents a substantial risk of injury to any person from fire, explosion, or exposure to toxic or noxious chemicals or gas; or

(2) the place used or intended to be used to

manufacture, produce, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis has located within it or surrounding it devices, weapons, chemicals, or explosives designed, hidden, or arranged in a manner that would cause a person to be exposed to a substantial risk of great bodily harm.

(b) It may be inferred that a place was intended to be used to manufacture a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog if a substance containing a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog or a substance containing a chemical important to the manufacture of a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog is found at the place of the alleged illegal controlled substance manufacturing in close proximity to equipment or a chemical used for facilitating the manufacture of the controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog that is alleged to have been intended to be manufactured.
(c) As used in this Section, "place" means a premises, conveyance, or location that offers seclusion, shelter, means, or facilitation for manufacturing, producing, possessing, or possessing with intent to deliver a controlled or counterfeit substance, controlled substance analog, or cannabis.
(d) Use of a dangerous place for the commission of a controlled substance or cannabis offense is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.5)
Sec. 12-5.5. Common carrier recklessness.
(a) A person commits common carrier recklessness when he or she, having personal management or control of or over a public conveyance used for the common carriage of persons, recklessly endangers the safety of others.
(b) Sentence. Common carrier recklessness is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-5.15)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.1a by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-5.15. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 93-852, eff. 8-2-04. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 15 heading)

SUBDIVISION 15. INTIMIDATION
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-6)
Sec. 12-6. Intimidation.
(a) A person commits intimidation when, with intent to cause another to perform or to omit the performance of any act, he or she communicates to another, directly or indirectly by any means, a threat to perform without lawful authority any of the following acts:
(1) Inflict physical harm on the person threatened or

any other person or on property; or

(2) Subject any person to physical confinement or

restraint; or

(3) Commit a felony or Class A misdemeanor; or
(4) Accuse any person of an offense; or
(5) Expose any person to hatred, contempt or

ridicule; or

(6) Take action as a public official against anyone

or anything, or withhold official action, or cause such action or withholding; or

(7) Bring about or continue a strike, boycott or

other collective action.

(b) Sentence.
Intimidation is a Class 3 felony for which an offender may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-6.1)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-6.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-6.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6.2)
Sec. 12-6.2. Aggravated intimidation.
(a) A person commits aggravated intimidation when he or she commits intimidation and:
(1) the person committed the offense in furtherance

of the activities of an organized gang or because of the person's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or

(2) the offense is committed with the intent to

prevent any person from becoming a community policing volunteer; or

(3) the following conditions are met:
(A) the person knew that the victim was a peace

officer, a correctional institution employee, a fireman, a community policing volunteer, or a civilian reporting information regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency; and

(B) the offense was committed:
(i) while the victim was engaged in the

execution of his or her official duties; or

(ii) to prevent the victim from performing

his or her official duties;

(iii) in retaliation for the victim's

performance of his or her official duties;

(iv) by reason of any person's activity as a

community policing volunteer; or

(v) because the person reported information

regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) is a Class 2 felony for which the offender may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years nor more than 14 years.
(c) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-162, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6.3)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-6.3. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 90-118, eff. 1-1-98. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6.4)
Sec. 12-6.4. Criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds and criminal street gang recruitment of a minor.
(a) A person commits criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds when on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds, he or she knowingly threatens the use of physical force to coerce, solicit, recruit, or induce another person to join or remain a member of a criminal street gang, or conspires to do so.
(a-5) A person commits the offense of criminal street gang recruitment of a minor when he or she threatens the use of physical force to coerce, solicit, recruit, or induce another person to join or remain a member of a criminal street gang, or conspires to do so, whether or not such threat is communicated in person, by means of the Internet, or by means of a telecommunications device.
(b) Sentence. Criminal street gang recruitment on school grounds or public property adjacent to school grounds is a Class 1 felony and criminal street gang recruitment of a minor is a Class 1 felony.
(c) In this Section:
"School grounds" means the building or buildings or

real property comprising a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university and includes a school yard, school playing field, or school playground.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age.
"Internet" means an interactive computer service or

system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Telecommunications device" means a device that is

capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals, text, images, sounds, codes, or other information including, but not limited to, paging devices, telephones, and cellular and mobile telephones.

(Source: P.A. 96-199, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-6.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-6.1)
Sec. 12-6.5. Compelling organization membership of persons. A person who knowingly, expressly or impliedly, threatens to do bodily harm or does bodily harm to an individual or to that individual's family or uses any other criminally unlawful means to solicit or cause any person to join, or deter any person from leaving, any organization or association regardless of the nature of such organization or association, is guilty of a Class 2 felony.
Any person of the age of 18 years or older who knowingly, expressly or impliedly, threatens to do bodily harm or does bodily harm to a person under 18 years of age or uses any other criminally unlawful means to solicit or cause any person under 18 years of age to join, or deter any person under 18 years of age from leaving, any organization or association regardless of the nature of such organization or association is guilty of a Class 1 felony.
A person convicted of an offense under this Section shall not be eligible to receive a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or periodic imprisonment.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7)
Sec. 12-7. Compelling confession or information by force or threat.
(a) A person who, with intent to obtain a confession, statement or information regarding any offense, knowingly inflicts or threatens imminent bodily harm upon the person threatened or upon any other person commits compelling a confession or information by force or threat.
(b) Sentence.
Compelling a confession or information is a: (1) Class 4 felony if the defendant threatens imminent bodily harm to obtain a confession, statement, or information but does not inflict bodily harm on the victim, (2) Class 3 felony if the defendant inflicts bodily harm on the victim to obtain a confession, statement, or information, and (3) Class 2 felony if the defendant inflicts great bodily harm to obtain a confession, statement, or information.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.1)
Sec. 12-7.1. Hate crime.
(a) A person commits hate crime when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he commits assault, battery, aggravated assault, misdemeanor theft, criminal trespass to residence, misdemeanor criminal damage to property, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to real property, mob action, disorderly conduct, harassment by telephone, or harassment through electronic communications as these crimes are defined in Sections 12-1, 12-2, 12-3(a), 16-1, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, 25-1, 26-1, 26.5-2, and paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code, respectively.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), hate crime is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(b-5) Hate crime is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense if committed:
(1) in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other

building, structure, or place used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) in a cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used

for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) in a school or other educational facility,

including an administrative facility or public or private dormitory facility of or associated with the school or other educational facility;

(4) in a public park or an ethnic or religious

community center;

(5) on the real property comprising any location

specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5); or

(6) on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real

property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5).

(b-10) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine up to $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of hate crime. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes if the offender caused criminal damage to property consisting of religious fixtures, objects, or decorations. The educational program may be administered, as determined by the court, by a university, college, community college, non-profit organization, or the Holocaust and Genocide Commission. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits courses discouraging hate crimes from being made available online. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.
(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result thereof, any person suffering injury to his person or damage to his property as a result of hate crime may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, of an unemancipated minor shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages rendered against such minor under this subsection (c) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.
(d) "Sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-161, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.2)
Sec. 12-7.2. Educational intimidation. (a) A person commits educational intimidation when he knowingly interferes with the right of any child who is or is believed to be afflicted with a chronic infectious disease to attend or participate in the activities of an elementary or secondary school in this State:
(1) by actual or threatened physical harm to the person or property of the child or the child's family; or
(2) by impeding or obstructing the child's right of ingress to, egress from, or freedom of movement at school facilities or activities; or
(3) by exposing or threatening to expose the child, or the family or friends of the child, to public hatred, contempt or ridicule.
(b) Subsection (a) does not apply to the actions of school officials or the school's infectious disease review team who are acting within the course of their professional duties and in accordance with applicable law.
(c) Educational intimidation is a Class C misdemeanor, except that a second or subsequent offense shall be a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result thereof, any person suffering injury to his person or damage to his property as a result of educational intimidation may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians of an unemancipated minor, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages awarded against such minor under this subsection (d) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section of the Parental Responsibility Law.
(Source: P.A. 86-890.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.3)
Sec. 12-7.3. Stalking.
(a) A person commits stalking when he or she knowingly engages in a course of conduct directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that this course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to:
(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a

third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.
(a-3) A person commits stalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions follows another person or places the person under surveillance or any combination thereof and:
(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or

future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person in reasonable apprehension of

immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to or of that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits stalking when he or she has previously been convicted of stalking another person and knowingly and without lawful justification on one occasion:
(1) follows that same person or places that same

person under surveillance; and

(2) transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily

harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Stalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.
(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts,

including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. A course of conduct may include contact via electronic communications.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of

signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental

suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Family member" means a parent, grandparent,

brother, sister, or child, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption and includes a step-grandparent, step-parent, step-brother, step-sister or step-child. "Family member" also means any other person who regularly resides in the household, or who, within the prior 6 months, regularly resided in the household.

(5) "Follows another person" means (i) to move in

relative proximity to a person as that person moves from place to place or (ii) to remain in relative proximity to a person who is stationary or whose movements are confined to a small area. "Follows another person" does not include a following within the residence of the defendant.

(6) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with

the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(7) "Places a person under surveillance" means: (1)

remaining present outside the person's school, place of employment, vehicle, other place occupied by the person, or residence other than the residence of the defendant; or (2) placing an electronic tracking device on the person or the person's property.

(8) "Reasonable person" means a person in the

victim's situation.

(9) "Transmits a threat" means a verbal or written

threat or a threat implied by a pattern of conduct or a combination of verbal or written statements or conduct.

(d) Exemptions.
(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or

organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute, including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the

right to free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile

service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d-5) The incarceration of a person in a penal institution who commits the course of conduct or transmits a threat is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.
(d-10) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.
(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.4)
Sec. 12-7.4. Aggravated stalking.
(a) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she commits stalking and:
(1) causes bodily harm to the victim;
(2) confines or restrains the victim; or
(3) violates a temporary restraining order, an order

of protection, a stalking no contact order, a civil no contact order, or an injunction prohibiting the behavior described in subsection (b)(1) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-1) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or has been previously required to register under that Act and commits the offense of stalking when the victim of the stalking is also the victim of the offense for which the sex offender is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or a family member of the victim.
(b) Sentence. Aggravated stalking is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 2 felony.
(c) Exemptions.
(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or

organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the managing or maintenance of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the

right of free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile

service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.
(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-468, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.5)
Sec. 12-7.5. Cyberstalking.
(a) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she engages in a course of conduct using electronic communication directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that would cause a reasonable person to:
(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a

third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.
(a-3) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions, harasses another person through the use of electronic communication and:
(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or

future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person or a family member of that

person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of

an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, creates and maintains an Internet website or webpage which is accessible to one or more third parties for a period of at least 24 hours, and which contains statements harassing another person and:
(1) which communicates a threat of immediate or

future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, where the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person, or

(2) which places that person or a family member of

that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, or

(3) which knowingly solicits the commission of an act

by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Cyberstalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.
(c) For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts,

including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. The incarceration in a penal institution of a person who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of

signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions through an electronic device including, but not limited to, a telephone, cellular phone, computer, or pager, which communication includes, but is not limited to, e-mail, instant message, text message, or voice mail.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental

suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Harass" means to engage in a knowing and willful

course of conduct directed at a specific person that alarms, torments, or terrorizes that person.

(5) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with

the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(6) "Reasonable person" means a person in the

victim's circumstances, with the victim's knowledge of the defendant and the defendant's prior acts.

(7) "Third party" means any person other than the

person violating these provisions and the person or persons towards whom the violator's actions are directed.

(d) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.
(e) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.
(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-303, eff. 8-11-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-7.6)
Sec. 12-7.6. Cross burning.
(a) A person commits cross burning when he or she, with the intent to intimidate any other person or group of persons, burns or causes to be burned a cross.
(b) Sentence. Cross burning is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(c) For the purposes of this Section, a person acts with the "intent to intimidate" when he or she intentionally places or attempts to place another person in fear of physical injury or fear of damage to that other person's property.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-8)
Sec. 12-8. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 89-657, eff. 8-14-96.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-9)
Sec. 12-9. Threatening public officials; human service providers.
(a) A person commits threatening a public official or human service provider when:
(1) that person knowingly delivers or conveys,

directly or indirectly, to a public official or human service provider by any means a communication:

(i) containing a threat that would place the

public official or human service provider or a member of his or her immediate family in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(ii) containing a threat that would place the

public official or human service provider or a member of his or her immediate family in reasonable apprehension that damage will occur to property in the custody, care, or control of the public official or his or her immediate family; and

(2) the threat was conveyed because of the

performance or nonperformance of some public duty or duty as a human service provider, because of hostility of the person making the threat toward the status or position of the public official or the human service provider, or because of any other factor related to the official's public existence.

(a-5) For purposes of a threat to a sworn law enforcement officer, the threat must contain specific facts indicative of a unique threat to the person, family or property of the officer and not a generalized threat of harm.
(a-6) For purposes of a threat to a social worker, caseworker, investigator, or human service provider, the threat must contain specific facts indicative of a unique threat to the person, family or property of the individual and not a generalized threat of harm.
(b) For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Public official" means a person who is elected

to office in accordance with a statute or who is appointed to an office which is established, and the qualifications and duties of which are prescribed, by statute, to discharge a public duty for the State or any of its political subdivisions or in the case of an elective office any person who has filed the required documents for nomination or election to such office. "Public official" includes a duly appointed assistant State's Attorney, assistant Attorney General, or Appellate Prosecutor; a sworn law enforcement or peace officer; a social worker, caseworker, or investigator employed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the Department of Children and Family Services.

(1.5) "Human service provider" means a social

worker, case worker, or investigator employed by an agency or organization providing social work, case work, or investigative services under a contract with or a grant from the Department of Human Services, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or the Department on Aging.

(2) "Immediate family" means a public official's

spouse or child or children.

(c) Threatening a public official or human service provider is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(Source: P.A. 97-1079, eff. 1-1-13; 98-529, eff. 1-1-14.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 20 heading)

SUBDIVISION 20. MUTILATION
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-10)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-35 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-10. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 94-684, eff. 1-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-40 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-10.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 93-449, eff. 1-1-04; 94-684, eff. 1-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-10.2)
Sec. 12-10.2. Tongue splitting.
(a) In this Section, "tongue splitting" means the cutting of a human tongue into 2 or more parts.
(b) A person may not knowingly perform tongue splitting on another person unless the person performing the tongue splitting is licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
(c) Sentence. Tongue splitting performed in violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-10.3)
Sec. 12-10.3. False representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor.
(a) A person, other than the parent or legal guardian of a minor, commits the offense of false representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor when he or she falsely represents himself or herself as the parent or legal guardian of the minor to an owner or employee of a tattoo or body piercing business for the purpose of:
(1) accompanying the minor to a business that

provides tattooing as required under Section 12-10 of this Code (tattooing body of minor);

(2) accompanying the minor to a business that

provides body piercing as required under Section 12-10.1 of this Code (piercing the body of a minor); or

(3) furnishing the written consent required under

Section 12-10.1 of this Code (piercing the body of a minor).

(b) Sentence. False representation to a tattoo or body piercing business as the parent or legal guardian of a minor is a Class C misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1311, eff. 1-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-11)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 19-6 by P.A. 97-1108.)
Sec. 12-11. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-11.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-11.1)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 18-6 by P.A. 97-1108.)
Sec. 12-11.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 86-1392. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-12)
Sec. 12-12. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-233, eff. 1-1-10. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-13)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.20 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-13. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-14)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.30 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-14. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-14.1)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.40 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-14.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-15) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-15)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.50 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-15. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 91-389, eff. 1-1-00. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-16)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.60 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-16. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-16.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-16.2)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-5.01 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-16.2. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 86-897. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-17) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-17)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.70 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-17. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 93-389, eff. 7-25-03. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-18)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.10 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-18. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-18.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-18.1)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 11-1.80 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-18.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-19) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-19)
Sec. 12-19. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-20)
Sec. 12-20. Sale of body parts.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), any person who knowingly buys or sells, or offers to buy or sell, a human body or any part of a human body, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first conviction and a Class 4 felony for subsequent convictions.
(b) This Section does not prohibit:
(1) An anatomical gift made in accordance with the

Illinois Anatomical Gift Act.

(2) (Blank).
(3) Reimbursement of actual expenses incurred by a

living person in donating an organ, tissue or other body part or fluid for transplantation, implantation, infusion, injection, or other medical or scientific purpose, including medical costs, loss of income, and travel expenses.

(4) Payments provided under a plan of insurance or

other health care coverage.

(5) Reimbursement of reasonable costs associated with

the removal, storage or transportation of a human body or part thereof donated for medical or scientific purposes.

(6) Purchase or sale of blood, plasma, blood products

or derivatives, other body fluids, or human hair.

(7) Purchase or sale of drugs, reagents or other

substances made from human bodies or body parts, for use in medical or scientific research, treatment or diagnosis.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-20.5)
Sec. 12-20.5. Dismembering a human body.
(a) A person commits dismembering a human body when he or she knowingly dismembers, severs, separates, dissects, or mutilates any body part of a deceased's body.
(b) This Section does not apply to:
(1) an anatomical gift made in accordance with the

Illinois Anatomical Gift Act;

(2) (blank);
(3) the purchase or sale of drugs, reagents, or other

substances made from human body parts, for the use in medical or scientific research, treatment, or diagnosis;

(4) persons employed by a county medical examiner's

office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment while performing an autopsy;

(5) the acts of a licensed funeral director or

embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(6) the acts of emergency medical personnel or

physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life; or

(7) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all

of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school.

(c) It is not a defense to a violation of this Section that the decedent died due to natural, accidental, or suicidal causes.
(d) Sentence. Dismembering a human body is a Class X felony.
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-20.6)
Sec. 12-20.6. Abuse of a corpse.
(a) In this Section:
"Corpse" means the dead body of a human being.
"Sexual conduct" has the meaning ascribed to the term

in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(b) A person commits abuse of a corpse if he or she intentionally:
(1) engages in sexual conduct with a corpse or

involving a corpse; or

(2) removes or carries away a corpse and is not

authorized by law to do so.

(c) Sentence.
(1) A person convicted of violating paragraph (1) of

subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating paragraph (2) of

subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(d) Paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section does not apply to:
(1) persons employed by a county medical examiner's

office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment;

(2) the acts of a licensed funeral director or

embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(3) cemeteries and cemetery personnel while

performing acts pursuant to a bona fide request from the involved cemetery consumer or his or her heirs, or pursuant to an interment or disinterment permit or a court order, or as authorized under Section 14.5 of the Cemetery Protection Act, or any other actions legally authorized for cemetery employees;

(4) the acts of emergency medical personnel or

physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life;

(5) physicians licensed to practice medicine in a11

of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school; or

(6) removing or carrying away a corpse by the

employees, independent contractors, or other persons designated by the federally designated organ procurement agency engaged in the organ and tissue procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 97-1072, eff. 8-24-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-21) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-21)
Sec. 12-21. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-10 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-21.5. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-21.6)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-5 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-21.6. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01; 92-515, eff. 6-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02. Renumbered by 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-21.6-5)
Sec. 12-21.6-5. Parent or guardian leaving custody or control of child with child sex offender.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person under 18 years of age; and "child sex offender" means a sex offender who is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act and is a child sex offender as defined in Sections 11-9.3 and 11-9.4 of this Code.
(b) It is unlawful for a parent or guardian of a minor to knowingly leave that minor in the custody or control of a child sex offender, or allow the child sex offender unsupervised access to the minor.
(c) This Section does not apply to leaving the minor in the custody or control of, or allowing unsupervised access to the minor by:
(1) a child sex offender who is the parent of the

minor;

(2) a person convicted of a violation of subsection

(c) of Section 12-15 of this Code; or

(3) a child sex offender who is married to and

living in the same household with the parent or guardian of the minor.

This subsection (c) shall not be construed to allow a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the minor victim of the sex offense if prohibited by subsection (b-6) of Section 11-9.4 of this Code.
(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the filing of a petition or the instituting of any proceeding under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 relating to abused minors.
(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-21.7)
Sec. 12-21.7. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 94-12, eff. 1-1-06. Repealed by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-22)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12C-15 by P.A. 97-1109.)
Sec. 12-22. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 88-479. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-30) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-30)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-3.4 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-30. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-311, eff. 8-11-11. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-31) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-31)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 12-34.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 12-31. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 88-392. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-32) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-32)
Sec. 12-32. Ritual mutilation.
(a) A person commits ritual mutilation when he or she knowingly mutilates, dismembers or tortures another person as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance or practice, and the victim did not consent or under such circumstances that the defendant knew or should have known that the victim was unable to render effective consent.
(b) Ritual mutilation does not include the practice of male circumcision or a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, or performance related thereto.
(c) Sentence. Ritual mutilation is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-33) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-33)
Sec. 12-33. Ritualized abuse of a child.
(a) A person commits ritualized abuse of a child when he or she knowingly commits any of the following acts with, upon, or in the presence of a child as part of a ceremony, rite or any similar observance:
(1) actually or in simulation, tortures, mutilates,

or sacrifices any warm-blooded animal or human being;

(2) forces ingestion, injection or other application

of any narcotic, drug, hallucinogen or anaesthetic for the purpose of dulling sensitivity, cognition, recollection of, or resistance to any criminal activity;

(3) forces ingestion, or external application, of

human or animal urine, feces, flesh, blood, bones, body secretions, nonprescribed drugs or chemical compounds;

(4) involves the child in a mock, unauthorized or

unlawful marriage ceremony with another person or representation of any force or deity, followed by sexual contact with the child;

(5) places a living child into a coffin or open grave

containing a human corpse or remains;

(6) threatens death or serious harm to a child, his

or her parents, family, pets, or friends that instills a well-founded fear in the child that the threat will be carried out; or

(7) unlawfully dissects, mutilates, or incinerates a

human corpse.

(b) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to apply to:
(1) lawful agricultural, animal husbandry, food

preparation, or wild game hunting and fishing practices and specifically the branding or identification of livestock;

(2) the lawful medical practice of male circumcision

or any ceremony related to male circumcision;

(3) any state or federally approved, licensed, or

funded research project; or

(4) the ingestion of animal flesh or blood in the

performance of a religious service or ceremony.

(b-5) For the purposes of this Section, "child" means any person under 18 years of age.
(c) Ritualized abuse of a child is a Class 1 felony for a first offense. A second or subsequent conviction for ritualized abuse of a child is a Class X felony for which the offender may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.
(d) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-34)
Sec. 12-34. Female genital mutilation.
(a) Except as otherwise permitted in subsection (b), whoever knowingly circumcises, excises, or infibulates, in whole or in part, the labia majora, labia minora, or clitoris of another commits female genital mutilation. Consent to the procedure by a minor on whom it is performed or by the minor's parent or guardian is not a defense to a violation of this Section.
(b) A surgical procedure is not a violation of subsection (a) if the procedure is performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches and:
(1) is necessary to the health of the person on whom

it is performed; or

(2) is performed on a person who is in labor or who

has just given birth and is performed for medical purposes connected with that labor or birth.

(c) Sentence. Female genital mutilation is a Class X felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12, Subdiv. 25 heading)

SUBDIVISION 25. OTHER HARM OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-34.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-31)
Sec. 12-34.5. Inducement to commit suicide.
(a) A person commits inducement to commit suicide when he or she does either of the following:
(1) Knowingly coerces another to commit suicide and

the other person commits or attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the coercion, and he or she exercises substantial control over the other person through (i) control of the other person's physical location or circumstances; (ii) use of psychological pressure; or (iii) use of actual or ostensible religious, political, social, philosophical or other principles.

(2) With knowledge that another person intends to

commit or attempt to commit suicide, intentionally (i) offers and provides the physical means by which another person commits or attempts to commit suicide, or (ii) participates in a physical act by which another person commits or attempts to commit suicide.

For the purposes of this Section, "attempts to commit suicide" means any act done with the intent to commit suicide and which constitutes a substantial step toward commission of suicide.
(b) Sentence. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(1) when the other person commits suicide as a direct result of the coercion is a Class 2 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) when the other person commits suicide as a direct result of the assistance provided is a Class 4 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(1) when the other person attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the coercion is a Class 3 felony. Inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) when the other person attempts to commit suicide as a direct result of the assistance provided is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) The lawful compliance or a good-faith attempt at lawful compliance with the Illinois Living Will Act, the Health Care Surrogate Act, or the Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law is not inducement to commit suicide under paragraph (a)(2) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-35)
Sec. 12-35. Sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.
(a) A person may not knowingly engage in any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.
(b) A person may not knowingly cause, aid, or abet another person to engage in any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal.
(c) A person may not knowingly permit any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal to be conducted on any premises under his or her charge or control.
(d) A person may not knowingly engage in, promote, aid, or abet any activity involving any sexual conduct or sexual contact with an animal for a commercial or recreational purpose.
(e) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who violates this Section in the presence of a person under 18 years of age or causes the animal serious physical injury or death is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(f) In addition to the penalty imposed in subsection (e), the court may order that the defendant do any of the following:
(1) Not harbor animals or reside in any household

where animals are present for a reasonable period of time or permanently, if necessary.

(2) Relinquish and permanently forfeit all animals

residing in the household to a recognized or duly organized animal shelter or humane society.

(3) Undergo a psychological evaluation and counseling

at defendant's expense.

(4) Reimburse the animal shelter or humane society

for any reasonable costs incurred for the care and maintenance of the animal involved in the sexual conduct or sexual contact in addition to any animals relinquished to the animal shelter or humane society.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit accepted animal husbandry practices or accepted veterinary medical practices by a licensed veterinarian or certified veterinary technician.
(h) If the court has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of this Section has occurred, the court may order the seizure of all animals involved in the alleged violation as a condition of bond of a person charged with a violation of this Section.
(i) In this Section:
"Animal" means every creature, either alive or dead, other than a human being.
"Sexual conduct" means any knowing touching or fondling by a person, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs or anus of an animal or any transfer or transmission of semen by the person upon any part of the animal, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the person.
"Sexual contact" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of a person and the sex organ, mouth, or anus of an animal, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of the person into the sex organ or anus of an animal, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the person. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual contact.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-36)
Sec. 12-36. Possession of unsterilized or vicious dogs by felons prohibited.
(a) For a period of 10 years commencing upon the release of a person from incarceration, it is unlawful for a person convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act, a felony violation of Section 26-5 or 48-1 of this Code, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code, a felony violation of Class 3 or higher of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of Class 3 or higher of the Cannabis Control Act, or a felony violation of Class 2 or higher of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, to knowingly own, possess, have custody of, or reside in a residence with, either:
(1) an unspayed or unneutered dog or puppy older than

12 weeks of age; or

(2) irrespective of whether the dog has been spayed

or neutered, any dog that has been determined to be a vicious dog under Section 15 of the Animal Control Act.

(b) Any dog owned, possessed by, or in the custody of a person convicted of a felony, as described in subsection (a), must be microchipped for permanent identification.
(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this Section that the dog in question is neutered or spayed, or that the dog in question was neutered or spayed within 7 days of the defendant being charged with a violation of this Section. Medical records from, or the certificate of, a doctor of veterinary medicine licensed to practice in the State of Illinois who has personally examined or operated upon the dog, unambiguously indicating whether the dog in question has been spayed or neutered, shall be prima facie true and correct, and shall be sufficient evidence of whether the dog in question has been spayed or neutered. This subsection (d) is not applicable to any dog that has been determined to be a vicious dog under Section 15 of the Animal Control Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-185, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-37)
Sec. 12-37. Possession and sale of caustic and noxious substances.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), it is unlawful for any person knowingly to have in his or her possession or to carry about any of the substances which are regulated by Title 16 CFR Section 1500.129 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and are required to contain the words "causes severe burns" as the affirmative statement of principal hazard on its label.
(b) Provided that the product is not used to threaten, intimidate, injure, or cause distress to another, the restrictions of subsection (a) do not apply to:
(1) persons while engaged in the legitimate

commercial manufacture, distribution, storage, or use of the specified substances;

(2) persons while engaged in legitimate scientific or

medical research, study, teaching or treatment involving the use of such substances, including without limitation physicians, pharmacists, scientists, teachers, students, and employees of regularly established laboratories, manufacturing and wholesale pharmacies, retail pharmacies, medical treatment facilities, schools, colleges, and universities;

(3) persons who have procured any of the specified

substances for medicinal purposes upon a prescription of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987;

(4) commercial or consumer products that contain any

of the specified substances found in subsection (a) including, but not limited to, batteries;

(5) production agriculture as defined in Section 3-5

of the Use Tax Act;

(6) persons while engaged in the possession or

transportation, or both, of a commercial product containing any of the substances specified in subsection (a) for retail sale;

(7) persons while engaged in the possession,

transportation, or use, unrelated to a retail sale, of any of the substances specified in subsection (a); or

(8) persons engaged in the possession,

transportation, or use of a commercial product containing any of the substances specified in subsection (a).

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(d) The regulation of the possession and carrying of caustic and noxious substances under this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate the possession and carrying of caustic and noxious substances and any ordinance or local law contrary to this Section is declared void. This is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
(Source: P.A. 97-565, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/12-38)
Sec. 12-38. Restrictions on purchase or acquisition of corrosive or caustic acid.
(a) A person seeking to purchase a substance which is regulated by Title 16 CFR Section 1500.129 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and is required to contain the words "causes severe burns" as the affirmative statement of principal hazard on its label, must prior to taking possession:
(1) provide a valid driver's license or other

government-issued identification showing the person's name, date of birth, and photograph; and

(2) sign a log documenting the name and address of

the person, date and time of the transaction, and the brand, product name and net weight of the item.

(b) Exemption. The requirements of subsection (a) do not apply to batteries or household products. For the purposes of this Section, "household product" means any product which is customarily produced or distributed for sale for consumption or use, or customarily stored, by individuals in or about the household, including, but not limited to, products which are customarily produced and distributed for use in or about a household as a cleaning agent, drain cleaner, pesticide, epoxy, paint, stain, or similar substance.
(c) Rules and Regulations. The Illinois Department of State Police shall have the authority to promulgate rules for the implementation and enforcement of this Section.
(d) Sentence. Any violation of this Section is a business offense for which a fine not exceeding $150 for the first violation, $500 for the second violation, or $1,500 for the third and subsequent violations within a 12-month period shall be imposed.
(e) Preemption. The regulation of the purchase or acquisition, or both, of a caustic or corrosive substance and any registry regarding the sale or possession, or both, of a caustic or corrosive substance is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate the purchase or acquisition of caustic or corrosive substances and any ordinance or local law contrary to this Section is declared void. This is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
(Source: P.A. 97-565, eff. 1-1-12; 97-929, eff. 8-10-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12A heading)

ARTICLE 12A. VIOLENT VIDEO GAMES
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-1)
Sec. 12A-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Violent Video Games Law.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-5)
Sec. 12A-5. Findings.
(a) The General Assembly finds that minors who play violent video games are more likely to:
(1) Exhibit violent, asocial, or aggressive behavior.
(2) Experience feelings of aggression.
(3) Experience a reduction of activity in the frontal

lobes of the brain which is responsible for controlling behavior.

(b) While the video game industry has adopted its own voluntary standards describing which games are appropriate for minors, those standards are not adequately enforced.
(c) Minors are capable of purchasing and do purchase violent video games.
(d) The State has a compelling interest in assisting parents in protecting their minor children from violent video games.
(e) The State has a compelling interest in preventing violent, aggressive, and asocial behavior.
(f) The State has a compelling interest in preventing psychological harm to minors who play violent video games.
(g) The State has a compelling interest in eliminating any societal factors that may inhibit the physiological and neurological development of its youth.
(h) The State has a compelling interest in facilitating the maturation of Illinois' children into law-abiding, productive adults.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-10)
Sec. 12A-10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) "Video game retailer" means a person who sells or rents video games to the public.
(b) "Video game" means an object or device that stores recorded data or instructions, receives data or instructions generated by a person who uses it, and, by processing the data or instructions, creates an interactive game capable of being played, viewed, or experienced on or through a computer, gaming system, console, or other technology.
(c) "Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.
(d) "Person" includes but is not limited to an individual, corporation, partnership, and association.
(e) "Violent" video games include depictions of or simulations of human-on-human violence in which the player kills or otherwise causes serious physical harm to another human. "Serious physical harm" includes depictions of death, dismemberment, amputation, decapitation, maiming, disfigurement, mutilation of body parts, or rape.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-15)
Sec. 12A-15. Restricted sale or rental of violent video games.
(a) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented, any violent video game to any minor, commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(b) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented any violent video game via electronic scanner must program the electronic scanner to prompt sales clerks to check identification before the sale or rental transaction is completed. A person who violates this subsection (b) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(c) A person may not sell or rent, or permit to be sold or rented, any violent video game through a self-scanning checkout mechanism. A person who violates this subsection (c) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(d) A retail sales clerk shall not be found in violation of this Section unless he or she has complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-20)
Sec. 12A-20. Affirmative defenses. In any prosecution arising under this Article, it is an affirmative defense:
(1) that the defendant was a family member of the

minor for whom the video game was purchased. "Family member" for the purpose of this Section, includes a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or first cousin;

(2) that the minor who purchased the video game

exhibited a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which the defendant reasonably relied on and reasonably believed to be authentic;

(3) for the video game retailer, if the retail sales

clerk had complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so; or

(4) that the video game sold or rented was

pre-packaged and rated EC, E10+, E, or T by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12A-25)
Sec. 12A-25. Labeling of violent video games.
(a) Video game retailers shall label all violent video games as defined in this Article, with a solid white "18" outlined in black. The "18" shall have dimensions of no less than 2 inches by 2 inches. The "18" shall be displayed on the front face of the video game package.
(b) A retailer's failure to comply with this Section is a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12B heading)

ARTICLE 12B. SEXUALLY EXPLICIT VIDEO GAMES
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-1)
Sec. 12B-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Sexually Explicit Video Games Law.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-5)
Sec. 12B-5. Findings. The General Assembly finds sexually explicit video games inappropriate for minors and that the State has a compelling interest in assisting parents in protecting their minor children from sexually explicit video games.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-10)
Sec. 12B-10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) "Video game retailer" means a person who sells or rents video games to the public.
(b) "Video game" means an object or device that stores recorded data or instructions, receives data or instructions generated by a person who uses it, and, by processing the data or instructions, creates an interactive game capable of being played, viewed, or experienced on or through a computer, gaming system, console, or other technology.
(c) "Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.
(d) "Person" includes but is not limited to an individual, corporation, partnership, and association.
(e) "Sexually explicit" video games include those that the average person, applying contemporary community standards would find, with respect to minors, is designed to appeal or pander to the prurient interest and depict or represent in a manner patently offensive with respect to minors, an actual or simulated sexual act or sexual contact, an actual or simulated normal or perverted sexual act or a lewd exhibition of the genitals or post-pubescent female breast.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-15)
Sec. 12B-15. Restricted sale or rental of sexually explicit video games.
(a) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented, any sexually explicit video game to any minor, commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(b) A person who sells, rents, or permits to be sold or rented any sexually explicit video game via electronic scanner must program the electronic scanner to prompt sales clerks to check identification before the sale or rental transaction is completed. A person who violates this subsection (b) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(c) A person may not sell or rent, or permit to be sold or rented, any sexually explicit video game through a self-scanning checkout mechanism. A person who violates this subsection (c) commits a petty offense for which a fine of $1,000 may be imposed.
(d) A retail sales clerk shall not be found in violation of this Section unless he or she has complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a sexually explicit video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-20)
Sec. 12B-20. Affirmative defenses. In any prosecution arising under this Article, it is an affirmative defense:
(1) that the defendant was a family member of the

minor for whom the video game was purchased. "Family member" for the purpose of this Section, includes a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or first cousin;

(2) that the minor who purchased the video game

exhibited a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which the defendant reasonably relied on and reasonably believed to be authentic;

(3) for the video game retailer, if the retail sales

clerk had complete knowledge that the party to whom he or she sold or rented a violent video game was a minor and the clerk sold or rented the video game to the minor with the specific intent to do so; or

(4) that the video game sold or rented was

pre-packaged and rated EC, E10+, E, or T by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-25)
Sec. 12B-25. Labeling of sexually explicit video games.
(a) Video game retailers shall label all sexually explicit video games as defined in this Act, with a solid white "18" outlined in black. The "18" shall have dimensions of no less than 2 inches by 2 inches. The "18" shall be displayed on the front face of the video game package.
(b) A retailer who fails to comply with this Section is guilty of a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-30)
Sec. 12B-30. Posting notification of video games rating system.
(a) A retailer who sells or rents video games shall post a sign that notifies customers that a video game rating system, created by the Entertainment Software Ratings Board, is available to aid in the selection of a game. The sign shall be prominently posted in, or within 5 feet of, the area in which games are displayed for sale or rental, at the information desk if one exists, and at the point of purchase.
(b) The lettering of each sign shall be printed, at a minimum, in 36-point type and shall be in black ink against a light colored background, with dimensions of no less than 18 by 24 inches.
(c) A retailer's failure to comply with this Section is a petty offense punishable by a fine of $500 for the first 3 violations, and $1,000 for every subsequent violation.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/12B-35)
Sec. 12B-35. Availability of brochure describing rating system.
(a) A video game retailer shall make available upon request a brochure to customers that explains the Entertainment Software Ratings Board ratings system.
(b) A retailer who fails to comply with this Section shall receive the punishment described in subsection (b) of Section 12B-25.
(Source: P.A. 94-315, eff. 1-1-06.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C heading)

ARTICLE 12C. HARMS TO CHILDREN
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. ENDANGERMENT AND NEGLECT OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.6)
Sec. 12C-5. Endangering the life or health of a child.
(a) A person commits endangering the life or health of a child when he or she knowingly: (1) causes or permits the life or health of a child under the age of 18 to be endangered; or (2) causes or permits a child to be placed in circumstances that endanger the child's life or health. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.
(b) A trier of fact may infer that a child 6 years of age or younger is unattended if that child is left in a motor vehicle for more than 10 minutes.
(c) "Unattended" means either: (i) not accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older; or (ii) if accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older, out of sight of that person.
(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony. A violation of this Section that is a proximate cause of the death of the child is a Class 3 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)
Sec. 12C-10. Child abandonment.
(a) A person commits child abandonment when he or she, as a parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly leaves that child who is under the age of 13 without supervision by a responsible person over the age of 14 for a period of 24 hours or more. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.
(b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the following factors:
(1) the age of the child;
(2) the number of children left at the location;
(3) special needs of the child, including whether the

child is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the child was left

without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the

child was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the child was left

without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the

child was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other

person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was left without supervision, the physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was without supervision;

(9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or

the child was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the child was given a phone number of a

person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left

for the child;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to

economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the child;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of

the person or persons who provided supervision for the child;

(14) any other factor that would endanger the health

or safety of that particular child;

(15) whether the child was left under the supervision

of another person.

(c) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3 felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-15) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-22)
Sec. 12C-15. Child abandonment or endangerment; probation.
(a) Whenever a parent of a child as determined by the court on the facts before it, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of, with respect to his or her child, child abandonment under Section 12C-10 of this Article or endangering the life or health of a child under Section 12C-5 of this Article, the court may, without entering a judgment of guilt and with the consent of the person, defer further proceedings and place the person upon probation upon the reasonable terms and conditions as the court may require. At least one term of the probation shall require the person to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services at the times and in the programs that the Department of Children and Family Services may require.
(b) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions imposed under subsection (a), the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings. Discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be without court adjudication of guilt and shall not be considered a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. However, a record of the disposition shall be reported by the clerk of the circuit court to the Department of State Police under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act, and the record shall be maintained and provided to any civil authority in connection with a determination of whether the person is an acceptable candidate for the care, custody and supervision of children.
(c) Discharge and dismissal under this Section may occur only once.
(d) Probation under this Section may not be for a period of less than 2 years.
(e) If the child dies of the injuries alleged, this Section shall be inapplicable.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-20)
Sec. 12C-20. Abandonment of a school bus containing children.
(a) A school bus driver commits abandonment of a school bus containing children when he or she knowingly abandons the school bus while it contains any children who are without other adult supervision, except in an emergency where the driver is seeking help or otherwise acting in the best interests of the children.
(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-25)
Sec. 12C-25. Contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor.
(a) Any parent, legal guardian or person having the custody of a child under the age of 18 years commits contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages such minor to be or to become a dependent and neglected minor; (2) does acts which directly tend to render any such minor so dependent and neglected; or (3) fails to do that which will directly tend to prevent such state of dependency and neglect. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.
(b) "Dependent and neglected minor" means any child who, while under the age of 18 years, for any reason is destitute, homeless or abandoned; or dependent upon the public for support; or has not proper parental care or guardianship; or habitually begs or receives alms; or is found living in any house of ill fame or with any vicious or disreputable person; or has a home which by reason of neglect, cruelty or depravity on the part of its parents, guardian or any other person in whose care it may be is an unfit place for such child; and any child who while under the age of 10 years is found begging, peddling or selling any articles or singing or playing any musical instrument for gain upon the street or giving any public entertainments or accompanies or is used in aid of any person so doing.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/33D-1)
Sec. 12C-30. Contributing to the delinquency or criminal delinquency of a minor.
(a) Contributing to the delinquency of a minor. A person commits contributing to the delinquency of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages a minor to be or to become a delinquent minor; or (2) does acts which directly tend to render any minor so delinquent.
(b) Contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor. A person of the age of 21 years and upwards commits contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor when he or she, with the intent to promote or facilitate the commission of an offense solicits, compels or directs a minor in the commission of the offense that is either: (i) a felony when the minor is under the age of 17 years; or (ii) a misdemeanor when the minor is under the age of 18 years.
(c) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 17th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance, and any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance classified as a misdemeanor offense.
(d) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A

misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is:
(i) a Class C misdemeanor if the offense

committed is a petty offense or a business offense;

(ii) a Class B misdemeanor if the offense

committed is a Class C misdemeanor;

(iii) a Class A misdemeanor if the offense

committed is a Class B misdemeanor;

(iv) a Class 4 felony if the offense committed is

a Class A misdemeanor;

(v) a Class 3 felony if the offense committed is

a Class 4 felony;

(vi) a Class 2 felony if the offense committed is

a Class 3 felony;

(vii) a Class 1 felony if the offense committed

is a Class 2 felony; and

(viii) a Class X felony if the offense committed

is a Class 1 felony or a Class X felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (b) incurs the same

penalty as first degree murder if the committed offense is first degree murder.

(e) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. BODILY HARM OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-35) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10)
Sec. 12C-35. Tattooing the body of a minor.
(a) A person, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, commits tattooing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly tattoos or offers to tattoo a person under the age of 18.
(b) A person who is an owner or employee of a business that performs tattooing, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where tattooing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian.
(c) "Tattoo" means to insert pigment under the surface of the skin of a human being, by pricking with a needle or otherwise, so as to produce an indelible mark or figure visible through the skin.
(d) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who tattoos or offers to tattoo another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which tattooing is performed.
(d-5) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to the removal of a tattoo from a person under 18 years of age, who is a victim of a violation of Section 10-9 of this Code or who is or has been a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, if the removal of the tattoo is performed in an establishment or multi-type establishment which has received a certificate of registration from the Department of Public Health or its agent under the Tattoo and Body Piercing Establishment Registration Act and the removal of the tattoo is performed by the operator or an authorized employee of the operator of the establishment or multi-type establishment. For the purposes of this subsection (d-5), "tattoo" also means the indelible mark or figure visible through the skin created by tattooing.
(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-936, eff. 8-15-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)
Sec. 12C-40. Piercing the body of a minor.
(a)(1) A person commits piercing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly pierces the body of a person under 18 years of age without written consent of a parent or legal guardian of that person. Before the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age may be pierced, the written consent form signed by the parent or legal guardian must contain a provision in substantially the following form:
"I understand that the oral piercing of the tongue, lips, cheeks, or any other area of the oral cavity carries serious risk of infection or damage to the mouth and teeth, or both infection and damage to those areas, that could result but is not limited to nerve damage, numbness, and life threatening blood clots.".
A person who pierces the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without obtaining a signed written consent form from a parent or legal guardian of the person that includes the provision describing the health risks of body piercing, violates this Section.
(2) A person who is an owner or employed by a business that performs body piercing may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where body piercing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian.
(b) "Pierce" means to make a hole in the body in order to insert or allow the insertion of any ring, hoop, stud, or other object for the purpose of ornamentation of the body. "Piercing" does not include tongue splitting as defined in Section 12-10.2. The term "body" includes the oral cavity.
(c) Exceptions. This Section may not be construed in any way to prohibit any injection, incision, acupuncture, or similar medical or dental procedure performed by a licensed health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure or the presence on the premises where that procedure is being performed by a health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure of a person under 18 years of age who is not accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. This Section does not prohibit ear piercing. This Section does not apply to a minor emancipated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Emancipation of Minors Act or by marriage. This Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who pierces the body or oral cavity of another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which body piercing or oral cavity piercing is performed.
(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-45) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4.9)
Sec. 12C-45. Drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete.
(a) A person commits drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete when he or she knowingly distributes a drug to or encourages the ingestion of a drug by a person under the age of 18 with the intent that the person under the age of 18 ingest the drug for the purpose of a quick weight gain or loss in connection with participation in athletics.
(b) This Section does not apply to care under usual and customary standards of medical practice by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or to the sale of drugs or products by a retail merchant.
(c) Drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-50)
Sec. 12C-50. Hazing.
(a) A person commits hazing when he or she knowingly requires the performance of any act by a student or other person in a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State, for the purpose of induction or admission into any group, organization, or society associated or connected with that institution, if:
(1) the act is not sanctioned or authorized by that

educational institution; and

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person.
(b) Sentence. Hazing is a Class A misdemeanor, except that hazing that results in death or great bodily harm is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-50.1)
Sec. 12C-50.1. Failure to report hazing.
(a) For purposes of this Section, "school official" includes any and all paid school administrators, teachers, counselors, support staff, and coaches and any and all volunteer coaches employed by a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State.
(b) A school official commits failure to report hazing when:
(1) while fulfilling his or her official

responsibilities as a school official, he or she personally observes an act which is not sanctioned or authorized by that educational institution;

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person; and
(3) the school official knowingly fails to report the

act to supervising educational authorities or, in the event of death or great bodily harm, to law enforcement.

(c) Sentence. Failure to report hazing is a Class B misdemeanor. If the act which the person failed to report resulted in death or great bodily harm, the offense is a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to report hazing under this Section that the person who personally observed the act had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the act would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.
(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow prosecution of a person who personally observes the act of hazing and assists with an investigation and any subsequent prosecution of the offender.
(Source: P.A. 98-393, eff. 8-16-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. CURFEW OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-60)
Sec. 12C-60. Curfew.
(a) Curfew offenses.
(1) A minor commits a curfew offense when he or she

remains in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(2) A parent or guardian of a minor or other person

in custody or control of a minor commits a curfew offense when he or she knowingly permits the minor to remain in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(b) Curfew defenses. It is a defense to prosecution under subsection (a) that the minor was:
(1) accompanied by the minor's parent or guardian or

other person in custody or control of the minor;

(2) on an errand at the direction of the minor's

parent or guardian, without any detour or stop;

(3) in a motor vehicle involved in interstate travel;
(4) engaged in an employment activity or going to or

returning home from an employment activity, without any detour or stop;

(5) involved in an emergency;
(6) on the sidewalk abutting the minor's residence or

abutting the residence of a next-door neighbor if the neighbor did not complain to the police department about the minor's presence;

(7) attending an official school, religious, or other

recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor, or going to or returning home from, without any detour or stop, an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor;

(8) exercising First Amendment rights protected by

the United States Constitution, such as the free exercise of religion, freedom of speech, and the right of assembly; or

(9) married or had been married or is an emancipated

minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

(c) Enforcement. Before taking any enforcement action under this Section, a law enforcement officer shall ask the apparent offender's age and reason for being in the public place. The officer shall not issue a citation or make an arrest under this Section unless the officer reasonably believes that an offense has occurred and that, based on any response and other circumstances, no defense in subsection (b) is present.
(d) Definitions. In this Section:
(1) "Curfew hours" means:
(A) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Saturday;
(B) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Sunday;

and

(C) Between 11:00 p.m. on Sunday to Thursday,

inclusive, and 6:00 a.m. on the following day.

(2) "Emergency" means an unforeseen combination of

circumstances or the resulting state that calls for immediate action. The term includes, but is not limited to, a fire, a natural disaster, an automobile accident, or any situation requiring immediate action to prevent serious bodily injury or loss of life.

(3) "Establishment" means any privately-owned place

of business operated for a profit to which the public is invited, including, but not limited to, any place of amusement or entertainment.

(4) "Guardian" means:
(A) a person who, under court order, is the

guardian of the person of a minor; or

(B) a public or private agency with whom a minor

has been placed by a court.

(5) "Minor" means any person under 17 years of age.
(6) "Parent" means a person who is:
(A) a natural parent, adoptive parent, or

step-parent of another person; or

(B) at least 18 years of age and authorized by a

parent or guardian to have the care and custody of a minor.

(7) "Public place" means any place to which the

public or a substantial group of the public has access and includes, but is not limited to, streets, highways, and the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings, transport facilities, and shops.

(8) "Remain" means to:
(A) linger or stay; or
(B) fail to leave premises when requested to do

so by a police officer or the owner, operator, or other person in control of the premises.

(9) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury that

creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of not less than $10 nor more than $500, except that neither a person who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, nor that person's legal guardian, shall be subject to any fine. In addition to or instead of the fine imposed by this Section, the court may order a parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section to perform community service as determined by the court, except that the legal guardian of a person who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may not be ordered to perform community service. The dates and times established for the performance of community service by the parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall not conflict with the dates and times that the person is employed in his or her regular occupation.
(f) County, municipal and other local boards and bodies authorized to adopt local police laws and regulations under the constitution and laws of this State may exercise legislative or regulatory authority over this subject matter by ordinance or resolution incorporating the substance of this Section or increasing the requirements thereof or otherwise not in conflict with this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 15 heading)

SUBDIVISION 15. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-65) (was 720 ILCS 5/44-2 and 5/44-3)
Sec. 12C-65. Unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor.
(a) A person commits unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor when he or she gives, sells or otherwise transfers possession of a telecommunications device to a person under 18 years of age with the intent that the device be used to commit any offense under this Code, the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.
(b) "Telecommunications device" or "device" means a device which is portable or which may be installed in a motor vehicle, boat or other means of transportation, and which is capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals or other information, including but not limited to paging devices, cellular and mobile telephones, and radio transceivers, transmitters and receivers, but not including radios designed to receive only standard AM and FM broadcasts.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) Seizure and forfeiture of property. Any person who commits the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor as set forth in this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/12C-70)
Sec. 12C-70. Adoption compensation prohibited.
(a) Receipt of compensation for placing out prohibited; exception. No person and no agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization, except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, shall knowingly request, receive or accept any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969.
(b) Payment of compensation for placing out prohibited. No person shall knowingly pay or give any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969, including placing out of a child to any person or to any agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.
(c) Certain payments of salaries and medical expenses not prevented.
(1) The provisions of this Section shall not be

construed to prevent the payment of salaries or other compensation by a licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services, as that term is defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, to the officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on behalf of the child welfare agency, provided that such salaries and compensation are consistent with subsection (a) of Section 14.5 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(2) The provisions of this Section shall not be

construed to prevent the payment by a prospective adoptive parent of reasonable and actual medical fees or hospital charges for services rendered in connection with the birth of such child, if such payment is made to the physician or hospital who or which rendered the services or to the biological mother of the child or to prevent the receipt of such payment by such physician, hospital, or mother.

(3) The provisions of this Section shall not be

construed to prevent a prospective adoptive parent from giving a gift or gifts or other thing or things of value to a biological parent provided that the total value of such gift or gifts or thing or things of value does not exceed $200.

(d) Payment of certain expenses.
(1) A prospective adoptive parent shall be permitted

to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents of the child sought to be adopted, in addition to those expenses set forth in subsection (c), only in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (d).

"Reasonable living expenses" means those expenses

related to activities of daily living and meeting basic needs, including, but not limited to, lodging, food, and clothing for the biological parents during the biological mother's pregnancy and for no more than 120 days prior to the biological mother's expected date of delivery and for no more than 60 days after the birth of the child. The term does not include expenses for lost wages, gifts, educational expenses, or other similar expenses of the biological parents.

(2)(A) The prospective adoptive parents may seek

leave of the court to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents. They shall be permitted to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents only upon prior order of the circuit court where the petition for adoption will be filed, or if the petition for adoption has been filed in the circuit court where the petition is pending.

(B) Notwithstanding clause (2)(A) of this subsection

(d), a prospective adoptive parent may advance a maximum of $1,000 for reasonable birth parent living expenses without prior order of court. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all expenses to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(C) If the court finds an accounting by the

prospective adoptive parents to be incomplete or deceptive or to contain amounts which are unauthorized or unreasonable, the court may order a new accounting or the repayment of amounts found to be excessive or unauthorized or make any other orders it deems appropriate.

(3) Payments under this subsection (d) shall be

permitted only in those circumstances where there is a demonstrated need for the payment of such expenses to protect the health of the biological parents or the health of the child sought to be adopted.

(4) Payment of their reasonable living expenses, as

provided in this subsection (d), shall not obligate the biological parents to place the child for adoption. In the event the biological parents choose not to place the child for adoption, the prospective adoptive parents shall have no right to seek reimbursement from the biological parents, or from any relative or associate of the biological parents, of moneys paid to, or on behalf of, the biological parents pursuant to a court order under this subsection (d).

(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of this subsection

(d), a prospective adoptive parent may seek reimbursement of reasonable living expenses from a person who receives such payments only if the person who accepts payment of reasonable living expenses before the child's birth, as described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), knows that the person on whose behalf he or she is accepting payment is not pregnant at the time of the receipt of such payments or the person receives reimbursement for reasonable living expenses simultaneously from more than one prospective adoptive parent without the knowledge of the prospective adoptive parent.

(6) No person or entity shall offer, provide, or

co-sign a loan or any other credit accommodation, directly or indirectly, with a biological parent or a relative or associate of a biological parent based on the contingency of a surrender or placement of a child for adoption.

(7) Within 14 days after the completion of all

payments for reasonable living expenses of the biological parents under this subsection (d), the prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those expenses to the court. The accounting shall also include the verified statements of the prospective adoptive parents, each attorney of record, and the biological parents or parents to whom or on whose behalf the payments were made attesting to the accuracy of the accounting.

(8) If the placement of a child for adoption is made

in accordance with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children, and if the sending state permits the payment of any expenses of biological parents that are not permitted under this Section, then the payment of those expenses shall not be a violation of this Section. In that event, the prospective adoptive parents shall file an accounting of all payments of the expenses of the biological parent or parents with the court in which the petition for adoption is filed or is to be filed. The accounting shall include a copy of the statutory provisions of the sending state that permit payments in addition to those permitted by this Section and a copy of all orders entered in the sending state that relate to expenses of the biological parents paid by the prospective adoptive parents in the sending state.

(9) The prospective adoptive parents shall be

permitted to pay the reasonable attorney's fees of a biological parent's attorney in connection with proceedings under this Section or in connection with proceedings for the adoption of the child if the amount of fees of the attorney is $1,000 or less. If the amount of attorney's fees of each biological parent exceeds $1,000, the attorney's fees shall be paid only after a petition seeking leave to pay those fees is filed with the court in which the adoption proceeding is filed or to be filed. The court shall review the petition for leave to pay attorney's fees, and if the court determines that the fees requested are reasonable, the court shall permit the petitioners to pay them. If the court determines that the fees requested are not reasonable, the court shall determine and set the reasonable attorney's fees of the biological parents' attorney which may be paid by the petitioners. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those fees to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(10) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for an

unborn child to represent the interests of the child in proceedings under this subsection (d).

(11) The provisions of this subsection (d) apply to a

person who is a prospective adoptive parent. This subsection (d) does not apply to a licensed child welfare agency, as that term is defined in the Child Care Act of 1969, whose payments are governed by the Child Care Act of 1969 and the Department of Children and Family Services rules adopted thereunder.

(e) Injunctive relief.
(A) Whenever it appears that any person, agency,

association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or about to engage in any acts or practices that constitute or will constitute a violation of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services shall inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section in addition to any other penalties and other remedies provided in this Section.

(B) Whenever it appears that any person, agency,

association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or is about to engage in any act or practice that constitutes or will constitute a violation of any rule adopted under the authority of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services may inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or a temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section, in addition to any other penalties and remedies provided in this Section.

(f) A violation of this Section on a first conviction is a Class 4 felony, and on a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.
(g) "Adoption services" has the meaning given that term in the Child Care Act of 1969.
(h) "Placing out" means to arrange for the free care or placement of a child in a family other than that of the child's parent, stepparent, grandparent, brother, sister, uncle or aunt or legal guardian, for the purpose of adoption or for the purpose of providing care.
(i) "Prospective adoptive parent" means a person or persons who have filed or intend to file a petition to adopt a child under the Adoption Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 14 heading)

ARTICLE 14. EAVESDROPPING


(720 ILCS 5/14-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-1)
Sec. 14-1. Definitions.
(a) Eavesdropping device.
An eavesdropping device is any device capable of being used to hear or record oral conversation or intercept, or transcribe electronic communications whether such conversation or electronic communication is conducted in person, by telephone, or by any other means; Provided, however, that this definition shall not include devices used for the restoration of the deaf or hard-of-hearing to normal or partial hearing.
(b) Eavesdropper.
An eavesdropper is any person, including any law enforcement officer and any party to a private conversation, who operates or participates in the operation of any eavesdropping device contrary to the provisions of this Article or who acts as a principal, as defined in this Article.
(c) Principal.
A principal is any person who:
(1) Knowingly employs another who illegally uses an

eavesdropping device in the course of such employment; or

(2) Knowingly derives any benefit or information from

the illegal use of an eavesdropping device by another; or

(3) Directs another to use an eavesdropping device

illegally on his or her behalf.

(d) Private conversation.
For the purposes of this Article, "private conversation" means any oral communication between 2 or more persons, whether in person or transmitted between the parties by wire or other means, when one or more of the parties intended the communication to be of a private nature under circumstances reasonably justifying that expectation. A reasonable expectation shall include any expectation recognized by law, including, but not limited to, an expectation derived from a privilege, immunity, or right established by common law, Supreme Court rule, or the Illinois or United States Constitution.
(e) Private electronic communication.
For purposes of this Article, "private electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or part by a wire, radio, pager, computer, electromagnetic, photo electronic or photo optical system, when the sending or receiving party intends the electronic communication to be private under circumstances reasonably justifying that expectation. A reasonable expectation shall include any expectation recognized by law, including, but not limited to, an expectation derived from a privilege, immunity, or right established by common law, Supreme Court rule, or the Illinois or United States Constitution. Electronic communication does not include any communication from a tracking device.
(f) Bait car.
For purposes of this Article, "bait car" means any motor vehicle that is not occupied by a law enforcement officer and is used by a law enforcement agency to deter, detect, identify, and assist in the apprehension of an auto theft suspect in the act of stealing a motor vehicle.
(g) Surreptitious.
For purposes of this Article, "surreptitious" means obtained or made by stealth or deception, or executed through secrecy or concealment.
(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-2)
Sec. 14-2. Elements of the offense; affirmative defense.
(a) A person commits eavesdropping when he or she knowingly and intentionally:
(1) Uses an eavesdropping device, in a surreptitious

manner, for the purpose of overhearing, transmitting, or recording all or any part of any private conversation to which he or she is not a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all of the parties to the private conversation;

(2) Uses an eavesdropping device, in a surreptitious

manner, for the purpose of transmitting or recording all or any part of any private conversation to which he or she is a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all other parties to the private conversation;

(3) Intercepts, records, or transcribes, in a

surreptitious manner, any private electronic communication to which he or she is not a party unless he or she does so with the consent of all parties to the private electronic communication;

(4) Manufactures, assembles, distributes, or

possesses any electronic, mechanical, eavesdropping, or other device knowing that or having reason to know that the design of the device renders it primarily useful for the purpose of the surreptitious overhearing, transmitting, or recording of private conversations or the interception, or transcription of private electronic communications and the intended or actual use of the device is contrary to the provisions of this Article; or

(5) Uses or discloses any information which he or she

knows or reasonably should know was obtained from a private conversation or private electronic communication in violation of this Article, unless he or she does so with the consent of all of the parties.

(a-5) It does not constitute a violation of this Article to surreptitiously use an eavesdropping device to overhear, transmit, or record a private conversation, or to surreptitiously intercept, record, or transcribe a private electronic communication, if the overhearing, transmitting, recording, interception, or transcription is done in accordance with Article 108A or Article 108B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge brought under this Article relating to the interception of a privileged communication that the person charged:
1. was a law enforcement officer acting pursuant to

an order of interception, entered pursuant to Section 108A-1 or 108B-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

2. at the time the communication was intercepted, the

officer was unaware that the communication was privileged; and

3. stopped the interception within a reasonable time

after discovering that the communication was privileged; and

4. did not disclose the contents of the communication.
(c) It is not unlawful for a manufacturer or a supplier of eavesdropping devices, or a provider of wire or electronic communication services, their agents, employees, contractors, or venders to manufacture, assemble, sell, or possess an eavesdropping device within the normal course of their business for purposes not contrary to this Article or for law enforcement officers and employees of the Illinois Department of Corrections to manufacture, assemble, purchase, or possess an eavesdropping device in preparation for or within the course of their official duties.
(d) The interception, recording, or transcription of an electronic communication by an employee of a penal institution is not prohibited under this Act, provided that the interception, recording, or transcription is:
(1) otherwise legally permissible under Illinois law;
(2) conducted with the approval of the penal

institution for the purpose of investigating or enforcing a State criminal law or a penal institution rule or regulation with respect to inmates in the institution; and

(3) within the scope of the employee's official

duties.

For the purposes of this subsection (d), "penal institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (c)(1) of Section 31A-1.1.
(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-3)
Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article:
(a) Listening to radio, wireless electronic communications, and television communications of any sort where the same are publicly made;
(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;
(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;
(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to any emergency communication made in the normal course of operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement agency or institutions dealing in emergency services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility, emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or military installation;
(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;
(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the individual or business operating any such recording or listening device to comply with the requirements of this subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of this Section;
(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a forcible felony, a felony offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons under Section 10-9 of this Code, an offense involving prostitution, solicitation of a sexual act, or pandering, a felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, a felony violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any "streetgang related" or "gang-related" felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, or any felony offense involving any weapon listed in paragraphs (1) through (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code. Any recording or evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a witness concerning matters contained in the interception or recording. The Director of the Department of State Police shall issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use;
(g-5) (Blank);
(g-6) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use. Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any case involving child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case. Absent such a ruling, any such recording or evidence shall not be admissible at the trial of the criminal case;
(h) Recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera recording of an oral conversation between a uniformed peace officer, who has identified his or her office, and a person in the presence of the peace officer whenever (i) an officer assigned a patrol vehicle is conducting an enforcement stop; or (ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are activated or would otherwise be activated if not for the need to conceal the presence of law enforcement.
For the purposes of this subsection (h), "enforcement stop" means an action by a law enforcement officer in relation to enforcement and investigation duties, including but not limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, abandoned vehicle contacts, motorist assists, commercial motor vehicle stops, roadside safety checks, requests for identification, or responses to requests for emergency assistance;
(h-5) Recordings of utterances made by a person while in the presence of a uniformed peace officer and while an occupant of a police vehicle including, but not limited to, (i) recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera and (ii) recordings made in the presence of the peace officer utilizing video or audio systems, or both, authorized by the law enforcement agency;
(h-10) Recordings made simultaneously with a video camera recording during the use of a taser or similar weapon or device by a peace officer if the weapon or device is equipped with such camera;
(h-15) Recordings made under subsection (h), (h-5), or (h-10) shall be retained by the law enforcement agency that employs the peace officer who made the recordings for a storage period of 90 days, unless the recordings are made as a part of an arrest or the recordings are deemed evidence in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding and then the recordings must only be destroyed upon a final disposition and an order from the court. Under no circumstances shall any recording be altered or erased prior to the expiration of the designated storage period. Upon completion of the storage period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for operational use;
(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;
(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1) a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations by an employee of the corporation or other business entity when:
(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service

quality control of marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, the education or training of employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, or internal research related to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; and

(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at

least one person who is an active party to the marketing or opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation conversation being monitored.

No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged to any third party.
When recording or listening authorized by this subsection (j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is practicable.
Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide current and prospective employees with notice that the monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their employment. The notice shall include prominent signage notification within the workplace.
Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.
For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone solicitation" means a communication through the use of a telephone by live operators:
(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;
(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or

services;

(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or
(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or

collection of bank or retail credit accounts.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by a corporation or other business entity whose principal business is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of respondents toward products and services, or social or political issues, or both;
(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual at a police station or other place of detention by a law enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;
(l) Recording the interview or statement of any person when the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place at a police station that is currently participating in the Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act;
(m) An electronic recording, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of the interior of a school bus while the school bus is being used in the transportation of students to and from school and school-sponsored activities, when the school board has adopted a policy authorizing such recording, notice of such recording policy is included in student handbooks and other documents including the policies of the school, notice of the policy regarding recording is provided to parents of students, and notice of such recording is clearly posted on the door of and inside the school bus.
Recordings made pursuant to this subsection (m) shall be confidential records and may only be used by school officials (or their designees) and law enforcement personnel for investigations, school disciplinary actions and hearings, proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and criminal prosecutions, related to incidents occurring in or around the school bus;
(n) Recording or listening to an audio transmission from a microphone placed by a person under the authority of a law enforcement agency inside a bait car surveillance vehicle while simultaneously capturing a photographic or video image;
(o) The use of an eavesdropping camera or audio device during an ongoing hostage or barricade situation by a law enforcement officer or individual acting on behalf of a law enforcement officer when the use of such device is necessary to protect the safety of the general public, hostages, or law enforcement officers or anyone acting on their behalf;
(p) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as the "CPS Violence Prevention Hotline", but only where the notice of recording is given at the beginning of each call as required by Section 34-21.8 of the School Code. The recordings may be retained only by the Chicago Police Department or other law enforcement authorities, and shall not be otherwise retained or disseminated;
(q)(1) With prior request to and written or verbal approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which the conversation is anticipated to occur, recording or listening with the aid of an eavesdropping device to a conversation in which a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer, is a party to the conversation and has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of a qualified offense. The State's Attorney may grant this approval only after determining that reasonable cause exists to believe that inculpatory conversations concerning a qualified offense will occur with a specified individual or individuals within a designated period of time.
(2) Request for approval. To invoke the exception contained in this subsection (q), a law enforcement officer shall make a request for approval to the appropriate State's Attorney. The request may be written or verbal; however, a written memorialization of the request must be made by the State's Attorney. This request for approval shall include whatever information is deemed necessary by the State's Attorney but shall include, at a minimum, the following information about each specified individual whom the law enforcement officer believes will commit a qualified offense:
(A) his or her full or partial name, nickname or

alias;

(B) a physical description; or
(C) failing either (A) or (B) of this paragraph (2),

any other supporting information known to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request that gives rise to reasonable cause to believe that the specified individual will participate in an inculpatory conversation concerning a qualified offense.

(3) Limitations on approval. Each written approval by the State's Attorney under this subsection (q) shall be limited to:
(A) a recording or interception conducted by a

specified law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer;

(B) recording or intercepting conversations with the

individuals specified in the request for approval, provided that the verbal approval shall be deemed to include the recording or intercepting of conversations with other individuals, unknown to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request for approval, who are acting in conjunction with or as co-conspirators with the individuals specified in the request for approval in the commission of a qualified offense;

(C) a reasonable period of time but in no event

longer than 24 consecutive hours;

(D) the written request for approval, if applicable,

or the written memorialization must be filed, along with the written approval, with the circuit clerk of the jurisdiction on the next business day following the expiration of the authorized period of time, and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge or his or her designee as deemed appropriate by the court.

(3.5) The written memorialization of the request for approval and the written approval by the State's Attorney may be in any format, including via facsimile, email, or otherwise, so long as it is capable of being filed with the circuit clerk.
(3.10) Beginning March 1, 2015, each State's Attorney shall annually submit a report to the General Assembly disclosing:
(A) the number of requests for each qualified offense

for approval under this subsection; and

(B) the number of approvals for each qualified

offense given by the State's Attorney.

(4) Admissibility of evidence. No part of the contents of any wire, electronic, or oral communication that has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, other than in a prosecution of:
(A) the qualified offense for which approval was

given to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection (q);

(B) a forcible felony committed directly in the

course of the investigation of the qualified offense for which approval was given to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection (q); or

(C) any other forcible felony committed while the

recording or interception was approved in accordance with this subsection (q), but for this specific category of prosecutions, only if the law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer who has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded suffers great bodily injury or is killed during the commission of the charged forcible felony.

(5) Compliance with the provisions of this subsection is a prerequisite to the admissibility in evidence of any part of the contents of any wire, electronic or oral communication that has been intercepted as a result of this exception, but nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to prevent a court from otherwise excluding the evidence on any other ground recognized by State or federal law, nor shall anything in this subsection be deemed to prevent a court from independently reviewing the admissibility of the evidence for compliance with the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution or with Article I, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution.
(6) Use of recordings or intercepts unrelated to qualified offenses. Whenever any private conversation or private electronic communication has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception that is not related to an offense for which the recording or intercept is admissible under paragraph (4) of this subsection (q), no part of the contents of the communication and evidence derived from the communication may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, nor may it be publicly disclosed in any way.
(6.5) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use under this subsection (q).
(7) Definitions. For the purposes of this subsection (q) only:
"Forcible felony" includes and is limited to those

offenses contained in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and only as those offenses have been defined by law or judicial interpretation as of that date.

"Qualified offense" means and is limited to:
(A) a felony violation of the Cannabis Control

Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except for violations of:

(i) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;
(ii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled

Substances Act; and

(iii) Section 60 of the Methamphetamine

Control and Community Protection Act; and

(B) first degree murder, solicitation of murder

for hire, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnapping, child abduction, trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or gunrunning.

"State's Attorney" includes and is limited to the

State's Attorney or an assistant State's Attorney designated by the State's Attorney to provide verbal approval to record or intercept conversations under this subsection (q).

(8) Sunset. This subsection (q) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2018. No conversations intercepted pursuant to this subsection (q), while operative, shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of the inoperability of this subsection (q) on January 1, 2018.
(9) Recordings, records, and custody. Any private conversation or private electronic communication intercepted by a law enforcement officer or a person acting at the direction of law enforcement shall, if practicable, be recorded in such a way as will protect the recording from editing or other alteration. Any and all original recordings made under this subsection (q) shall be inventoried without unnecessary delay pursuant to the law enforcement agency's policies for inventorying evidence. The original recordings shall not be destroyed except upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; and
(r) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a lineup under Section 107A-2 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-846, eff. 1-1-13; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-1014, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-3A)
Sec. 14-3A. Recordings, records, and custody.
(a) Any private oral communication intercepted in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall, if practicable, be recorded by tape or other comparable method. The recording shall, if practicable, be done in such a way as will protect it from editing or other alteration. During an interception, the interception shall be carried out by a law enforcement officer, and the officer shall keep a signed, written record, including:
(1) The day and hours of interception or recording;
(2) The time and duration of each intercepted

communication;

(3) The parties, if known, to each intercepted

communication; and

(4) A summary of the contents of each intercepted

communication.

(b) Both the written record of the interception or recording and any and all recordings of the interception or recording shall immediately be inventoried and shall be maintained where the chief law enforcement officer of the county in which the interception or recording occurred directs. The written records of the interception or recording conducted under subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall not be destroyed except upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction and in any event shall be kept for 10 years.
(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-3B)
Sec. 14-3B. Notice of interception or recording.
(a) Within a reasonable time, but not later than 60 days after the termination of the investigation for which the interception or recording was conducted, or immediately upon the initiation of criminal proceedings, the person who was the subject of an interception or recording under subsection (g) of Section 14-3 shall be served with an inventory that shall include:
(1) Notice to any person who was the subject of the

interception or recording;

(2) Notice of any interception or recording if the

defendant was arrested or indicted or otherwise charged as a result of the interception of his or her private oral communication;

(3) The date of the interception or recording;
(4) The period of interception or recording; and
(5) Notice of whether during the period of

interception or recording devices were or were not used to overhear and record various conversations and whether or not the conversations are recorded.

(b) A court of competent jurisdiction, upon filing of a motion, may in its discretion make available to those persons or their attorneys for inspection those portions of the intercepted communications as the court determines to be in the interest of justice.
(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-4)
Sec. 14-4. Sentence.
(a) Eavesdropping, for a first offense, is a Class 4 felony and, for a second or subsequent offense, is a Class 3 felony.
(b) The eavesdropping of an oral conversation or an electronic communication of any law enforcement officer, State's Attorney, Assistant State's Attorney, the Attorney General, Assistant Attorney General, or a judge, while in the performance of his or her official duties, if not authorized by this Article or proper court order, is a Class 3 felony, and for a second or subsequent offense, is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-5)
Sec. 14-5. Evidence inadmissible. Any evidence obtained in violation of this Article is not admissible in any civil or criminal trial, or any administrative or legislative inquiry or proceeding, nor in any grand jury proceedings; provided, however, that so much of the contents of an alleged unlawfully intercepted, overheard or recorded conversation as is clearly relevant, as determined as a matter of law by the court in chambers, to the proof of such allegation may be admitted into evidence in any criminal trial or grand jury proceeding brought against any person charged with violating any provision of this Article. Nothing in this Section bars admission of evidence if all parties to the private conversation or private electronic communication consent to admission of the evidence.
(Source: P.A. 98-1142, eff. 12-30-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-6)
Sec. 14-6. Civil remedies to injured parties.
(1) Any or all parties to any conversation or electronic communication upon which eavesdropping is practiced contrary to this Article shall be entitled to the following remedies:
(a) To an injunction by the circuit court prohibiting

further eavesdropping by the eavesdropper and by or on behalf of his principal, or either;

(b) To all actual damages against the eavesdropper or

his principal or both;

(c) To any punitive damages which may be awarded by

the court or by a jury;

(d) To all actual damages against any landlord, owner

or building operator, or any common carrier by wire who aids, abets, or knowingly permits the eavesdropping concerned;

(e) To any punitive damages which may be awarded by

the court or by a jury against any landlord, owner or building operator, or common carrier by wire who aids, abets, or knowingly permits the eavesdropping concerned.

(2) No cause of action shall lie in any court against any common carrier by wire or its officers, agents or employees for providing information, assistance or facilities in accordance with the terms of a court order entered under Article 108A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(3) No civil claim, cause of action, or remedy shall lie against a parent, step-parent, guardian, or grandparent for eavesdropping of electronic communications through access to their minor's electronic accounts during that parent, step-parent, guardian, or grandparent's exercise of his or her parental rights to supervise, monitor, and control the activities of a minor in his or her care, custody, or control. This provision does not diminish the protections given to electronic accounts of a minor under any existing law other than this Article.
(Source: P.A. 98-268, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-7)
Sec. 14-7. Common carrier to aid in detection.
Subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission, any common carrier by wire shall, upon request of any subscriber and upon responsible offer to pay the reasonable cost thereof, furnish whatever services may be within its command for the purpose of detecting any eavesdropping involving its wires which are used by said subscriber. All such requests by subscribers shall be kept confidential unless divulgence is authorized in writing by the requesting subscriber.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-8)
Sec. 14-8. Discovery of eavesdropping device by an individual, common carrier, private investigative agency or non-governmental corporation). Any agent, officer or employee of a private investigative agency or non-governmental corporation, or of a common carrier by wire, or any individual, who discovers any physical evidence of an eavesdropping device being used which such person does not know to be a legal eavesdropping device shall, within a reasonable time after such discovery disclose the existence of such eavesdropping device to the State's Attorney of the county where such device was found. The State's Attorney shall within a reasonable time notify the person or persons apparently being eavesdropped upon of the existence of that device if the device is illegal. A violation of this Section is a Business Offense for which a fine shall be imposed not to exceed $500.
(Source: P.A. 79-984; 79-1454.)


(720 ILCS 5/14-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 14-9)
Sec. 14-9. Discovery of eavesdropping device by common carrier by wire - disclosure to subscriber.) Any agent, officer or employee of any common carrier by wire who discovers any physical evidence of an eavesdropping device which such person does not know to be a legal eavesdropping device shall, within a reasonable time after such discovery, disclose the existence of the eavesdropping device to the State's Attorney of the County where such device was found. The State's Attorney shall within a reasonable time notify the person or persons apparently being eavesdropped upon of the existence of that device if the device is illegal. A violation of this Section is a Business Offense for which a fine shall be imposed not to exceed $500.
(Source: P.A. 79-985.)




(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. C heading)

PART C. OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST PROPERTY




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 15 heading)

ARTICLE 15. DEFINITIONS


(720 ILCS 5/15-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-1)
Sec. 15-1. Property. As used in this Part C, "property" means anything of value. Property includes real estate, money, commercial instruments, admission or transportation tickets, written instruments representing or embodying rights concerning anything of value, labor, or services, or otherwise of value to the owner; things growing on, affixed to, or found on land, or part of or affixed to any building; electricity, gas and water; telecommunications services; birds, animals and fish, which ordinarily are kept in a state of confinement; food and drink; samples, cultures, microorganisms, specimens, records, recordings, documents, blueprints, drawings, maps, and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, computer programs or data, prototypes or models thereof, or any other articles, materials, devices, substances and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, prototypes, or models thereof which constitute, represent, evidence, reflect or record a secret scientific, technical, merchandising, production or management information, design, process, procedure, formula, invention, or improvement.
(Source: P.A. 88-75.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-2)
Sec. 15-2. Owner.
As used in this Part C, "owner" means a person, other than the offender, who has possession of or any other interest in the property involved, even though such interest or possession is unlawful, and without whose consent the offender has no authority to exert control over the property.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-3)
Sec. 15-3. Permanent deprivation.
As used in this Part C, to "permanently deprive" means to:
(a) Defeat all recovery of the property by the owner; or
(b) Deprive the owner permanently of the beneficial use of the property; or
(c) Retain the property with intent to restore it to the owner only if the owner purchases or leases it back, or pays a reward or other compensation for its return; or
(d) Sell, give, pledge, or otherwise transfer any interest in the property or subject it to the claim of a person other than the owner.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-4)
Sec. 15-4. Deception.
As used in this Part C "deception" means knowingly to:
(a) Create or confirm another's impression which is false and which the offender does not believe to be true; or
(b) Fail to correct a false impression which the offender previously has created or confirmed; or
(c) Prevent another from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of the property involved; or
(d) Sell or otherwise transfer or encumber property, failing to disclose a lien, adverse claim, or other legal impediment to the enjoyment of the property, whether such impediment is or is not valid, or is or is not a matter of official record; or
(e) Promise performance which the offender does not intend to perform or knows will not be performed. Failure to perform standing alone is not evidence that the offender did not intend to perform.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-5)
Sec. 15-5. Threat.
As used in this Part C, "threat" means a menace, however communicated, to:
(a) Inflict physical harm on the person threatened or any other person or on property; or
(b) Subject any person to physical confinement or restraint; or
(c) Commit any criminal offense; or
(d) Accuse any person of a criminal offense; or
(e) Expose any person to hatred, contempt or ridicule; or
(f) Harm the credit or business repute of any person; or
(g) Reveal any information sought to be concealed by the person threatened; or
(h) Take action as an official against anyone or anything, or withhold official action, or cause such action or withholding; or
(i) Bring about or continue a strike, boycott or other similar collective action if the property is not demanded or received for the benefit of the group which he purports to represent; or
(j) Testify or provide information or withhold testimony or information with respect to another's legal claim or defense; or
(k) Inflict any other harm which would not benefit the offender.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-6)
Sec. 15-6. Stolen property. As used in this Part C, "stolen property" means property over which control has been obtained by theft.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-7)
Sec. 15-7. Obtain.
As used in this Part C, "obtain" means:
(a) In relation to property, to bring about a transfer of interest or possession, whether to the offender or to another, and
(b) In relation to labor or services, to secure the performance thereof.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-8)
Sec. 15-8. Obtains control. As used in this Part C, the phrase "obtains or exerts control" over property, includes but is not limited to the taking, carrying away, or the sale, conveyance, or transfer of title to, or interest in, or possession of property.
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 15-9)
Sec. 15-9. Value.
As used in this Part C, the "value" of property consisting of any commercial instrument or any written instrument representing or embodying rights concerning anything of value, labor, or services or otherwise of value to the owner shall be:
(a) The "market value" of such instrument if such instrument is negotiable and has a market value; and
(b) The "actual value" of such instrument if such instrument is not negotiable or is otherwise without a market value. For the purpose of establishing such "actual value", the interest of any owner or owners entitled to part or all of the property represented by such instrument, by reason of such instrument, may be shown, even if another "owner" may be named in the complaint, information or indictment.
(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2849.)


(720 ILCS 5/15-10)
Sec. 15-10. Governmental property. As used in this Part C, "governmental property" means funds or other property owned by the State, a unit of local government, or a school district.
(Source: P.A. 94-134, eff. 1-1-06.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16 heading)

ARTICLE 16. THEFT AND RELATED OFFENSES




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. DEFINITIONS
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-0.1)
Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:
"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.
"Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, or money changer.
"Communication device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment which is capable of transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other component, accessory or part of any communication device which is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, acquisition or reception of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services.
"Communication service" means any service lawfully provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution network, system, facility or technology, including, but not limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any such communications, transmissions, signals and services lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.
"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or entity providing any communication service, whether directly or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any communication service directly or indirectly by or through any such distribution system, network or facility.
"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.
"Continuing course of conduct" means a series of acts, and the accompanying mental state necessary for the crime in question, irrespective of whether the series of acts are continuous or intermittent.
"Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to transport or store any bakery or dairy product.
"Document-making implement" means any implement, impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent personal identification document.
"Financial transaction device" means any of the following:
(1) An electronic funds transfer card.
(2) A credit card.
(3) A debit card.
(4) A point-of-sale card.
(5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code,

account number, personal identification number, or a record or copy of a code, account number, or personal identification number or other means of access to a credit account or deposit account, or a driver's license or State identification card used to access a proprietary account, other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, that can be used alone or in conjunction with another access device, for any of the following purposes:

(A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit

account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing of value.

(B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or

business the availability to the device holder of funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to the order of that person or business.

(C) Providing the device holder access to a

deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a deposit account, or making an electronic funds transfer.

"Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or advertised price of the merchandise. "Full retail value" includes the aggregate value of property obtained from retail thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments in a single transaction or in separate transactions over a period of one year.
"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.
"Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the library card was issued as authorized to borrow library material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card.
"Library facility" includes any public library or museum, or any library or museum of an educational, historical or eleemosynary institution, organization or society.
"Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data processing record or other documentary, written or printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in the custody of a library facility.
"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.
"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, transmission or decryption of, a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others in those activities.
"Master sound recording" means the original physical object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and which the original object from which all subsequent sound recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or indirectly derived.
"Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal property, including motor fuel.
"Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a payment card or information from a payment card, or what the person believes to be a payment card or information from a payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value from the person.
"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.
"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless device to access the Internet.
"Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a merchant.
"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.
"Personal identification document" means a birth certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card, a public, government, or private employment identification card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or issued, by or under the authority of the United States Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another person or by the authority of one who did not give that authority.
"Personal identifying information" means any of the following information:
(1) A person's name.
(2) A person's address.
(3) A person's date of birth.
(4) A person's telephone number.
(5) A person's driver's license number or State of

Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of another state.

(6) A person's social security number.
(7) A person's public, private, or government

employer, place of employment, or employment identification number.

(8) The maiden name of a person's mother.
(9) The number assigned to a person's depository

account, savings account, or brokerage account.

(10) The number assigned to a person's credit or

debit card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard", "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar cards whether issued by a financial institution, corporation, or business entity.

(11) Personal identification numbers.
(12) Electronic identification numbers.
(13) Digital signals.
(14) User names, passwords, and any other word,

number, character or combination of the same usable in whole or part to access information relating to a specific individual, or to the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

(15) Any other numbers or information which can be

used to access a person's financial resources, or to identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

"Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of such retail mercantile establishment.
"Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public services" mean any service subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a public utility that is owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by any public utility that is owned by such political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; any service furnished by an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the Federal Communications Commission.
"Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book.
"Radio frequency identification device" means any implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal identification document.
"RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that contains personal identifying information from which the personal identifying information can be read or decoded by another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or transponder.
"Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card.
"Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to the public.
"Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card.
"Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use of the public in transporting commodities in stores and markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside the store.
"Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, equipment or device.
"Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise.
"Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail value of the merchandise.
"Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the name of the actual performers or groups prominently and legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label of such sound or audio visual recording.
"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or re-transmission.
"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic serial number, mobile identification number, personal identification number or any communication or wireless device that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or that has been altered, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also means:
(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the

express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication service or other instrument capable of disguising its identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to a communications or wireless system operated by a communication service provider; and

(2) any communication or wireless device which is

capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or devices, so as to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, including, but not limited to, any device, technology, product, service, equipment, computer software or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, decryption of, access to or acquisition of any communication service provided by any communication service provider.

"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for propulsion.
"Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic, electronic or radio communications, or any part of such instrument, device, machine, or equipment, or any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or other component that is capable of facilitating the transmission or reception of telephonic, electronic, or radio communications.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-388, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. GENERAL THEFT
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1)
Sec. 16-1. Theft.
(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly:
(1) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over

property of the owner; or

(2) Obtains by deception control over property of the

owner; or

(3) Obtains by threat control over property of the

owner; or

(4) Obtains control over stolen property knowing the

property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that the property was stolen; or

(5) Obtains or exerts control over property in the

custody of any law enforcement agency which any law enforcement officer or any individual acting in behalf of a law enforcement agency explicitly represents to the person as being stolen or represents to the person such circumstances as would reasonably induce the person to believe that the property was stolen, and

(A) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of

the use or benefit of the property; or

(B) Knowingly uses, conceals or abandons the

property in such manner as to deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit; or

(C) Uses, conceals, or abandons the property

knowing such use, concealment or abandonment probably will deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit.

(b) Sentence.
(1) Theft of property not from the person and not

exceeding $500 in value is a Class A misdemeanor.

(1.1) Theft of property not from the person and not

exceeding $500 in value is a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(2) A person who has been convicted of theft of

property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, forgery, a violation of Section 4-103, 4-103.1, 4-103.2, or 4-103.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code relating to the possession of a stolen or converted motor vehicle, or a violation of Section 17-36 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 8 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(3) (Blank).
(4) Theft of property from the person not exceeding

$500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 3 felony.

(4.1) Theft of property from the person not exceeding

$500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 2 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(5) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not

exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(5.1) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not

exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 and not

exceeding $500,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(6.1) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value

is a Class X felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6.2) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not

exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(6.3) Theft of property exceeding $1,000,000 in value

is a Class X felony.

(7) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2)

of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender obtained money or property valued at $5,000 or more from a victim 60 years of age or older is a Class 2 felony.

(8) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph

(2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 3 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained does not exceed $500.

(9) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph

(2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 2 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $500 and does not exceed $10,000.

(10) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph

(2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 1 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $10,000 and does not exceed $100,000.

(11) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph

(2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class X felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $100,000.

(c) When a charge of theft of property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.
(d) Theft by lessee; permissive inference. The trier of fact may infer evidence that a person intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property (1) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return or (2) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 24 hours after written demand from the owner for its return and the lessee had presented identification to the owner that contained a materially fictitious name, address, or telephone number. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by him and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.
(e) Permissive inference; evidence of intent that a person obtains by deception control over property. The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly obtains by deception control over property of the owner" when he or she fails to return, within 45 days after written demand from the owner, the downpayment and any additional payments accepted under a promise, oral or in writing, to perform services for the owner for consideration of $3,000 or more, and the promisor knowingly without good cause failed to substantially perform pursuant to the agreement after taking a down payment of 10% or more of the agreed upon consideration. This provision shall not apply where the owner initiated the suspension of performance under the agreement, or where the promisor responds to the notice within the 45-day notice period. A notice in writing, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the promisor at the last known address of the promisor, shall constitute proper demand.
(f) Offender's interest in the property.
(1) It is no defense to a charge of theft of property

that the offender has an interest therein, when the owner also has an interest to which the offender is not entitled.

(2) Where the property involved is that of the

offender's spouse, no prosecution for theft may be maintained unless the parties were not living together as man and wife and were living in separate abodes at the time of the alleged theft.

(Source: P.A. 96-496, eff. 1-1-10; 96-534, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1301, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-1.1)
Sec. 16-1.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-857, eff. 1-1-09. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-1.2)
Sec. 16-1.2. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 84-992. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-1.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1.3)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-56 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 16-1.3. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 95-798, eff. 1-1-09. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-2)
Sec. 16-2. Theft of lost or mislaid property. A person commits theft of lost or mislaid property when he or she obtains control over the property and:
(a) Knows or learns the identity of the owner or knows, or is aware of, or learns of a reasonable method of identifying the owner, and
(b) Fails to take reasonable measures to restore the property to the owner, and
(c) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property.
(d) Sentence.
Theft of lost or mislaid property where:
(1) the value does not exceed $500 is a Class B

misdemeanor;

(2) the value exceeds $500 but does not exceed

$10,000 is a Class A misdemeanor; and

(3) the value exceeds $10,000 is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-3)
Sec. 16-3. Theft of labor or services or use of property.
(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly obtains the temporary use of property, labor or services of another which are available only for hire, by means of threat or deception or knowing that such use is without the consent of the person providing the property, labor or services. For the purposes of this subsection, library material is available for hire.
(b) A person commits theft when after renting or leasing a motor vehicle, obtaining a motor vehicle through a "driveaway" service mode of transportation or renting or leasing any other type of personal property exceeding $500 in value, under an agreement in writing which provides for the return of the vehicle or other personal property to a particular place at a particular time, he or she without good cause knowingly fails to return the vehicle or other personal property to that place within the time specified, and is thereafter served or sent a written demand mailed to the last known address, made by certified mail return receipt requested, to return such vehicle or other personal property within 3 days from the mailing of the written demand, and who without good cause knowingly fails to return the vehicle or any other personal property to any place of business of the lessor within such period.
(c) A person commits theft when he or she borrows from a library facility library material which has an aggregate value of $50 or more pursuant to an agreement with or procedure established by the library facility for the return of such library material, and knowingly without good cause fails to return the library material so borrowed in accordance with such agreement or procedure, and further knowingly without good cause fails to return such library material within 30 days after receiving written notice by certified mail from the library facility demanding the return of such library material.
(d) Sentence.
A person convicted of theft under subsection (a) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except that the theft of library material where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (c) is guilty of a petty offense for which the offender may be fined an amount not to exceed $500 and shall be ordered to reimburse the library for postage costs, attorney's fees, and actual replacement costs of the materials not returned, except that theft under subsection (c) where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony.
For the purpose of sentencing on theft of library material, separate transactions totalling more than $300 within a 90-day period shall constitute a single offense.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-3.1)
Sec. 16-3.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 83-1004. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-4)
Sec. 16-4. (Repealed).
(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-5)
Sec. 16-5. Theft from coin-operated machine.
(a) A person commits theft from a coin-operated machine when he or she knowingly and without authority opens, breaks into, tampers with, triggers, or damages a coin-operated machine either:
(1) to operate or use the machine; or
(2) with the intent to commit a theft from the

machine.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class B

misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is a Class A

misdemeanor.

(3) A person who has been convicted of theft from a

coin-operated machine in violation of subdivision (a)(2) and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-6)
Sec. 16-6. Theft-related devices.
(a)(1) A person commits unlawful possession of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she possesses a key, drawing, print, mold of a key, device, or substance designed to open, break into, tamper with, or damage a coin-operated machine, with intent to commit a theft from the machine.
(2) A person commits unlawful use of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she with the intent to commit a theft from a coin-operated machine uses a key, drawing, print, mold of a key, device, or substance and causes damage or loss to the coin-operated machine of more than $300.
(b)(1) A person commits unlawful use of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, offers for sale or distributes any theft detection shielding device.
(2) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection shielding device with the intent to commit theft or retail theft.
(3) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection device remover when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection device remover with the intent to use such tool to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise without the permission of the merchant or person owning or holding the merchandise.
(c) A person commits use of a scanning device or reencoder to defraud when the person knowingly uses:
(1) a scanning device to access, read, obtain,

memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card without the permission of the authorized user of the payment card and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant; or

(2) a reencoder to place information encoded on the

magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different card without the permission of the authorized user of the card from which the information is being reencoded and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1), (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2), (c)(1), or (c)(2) is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) is a Class 3 felony.
(e) The owner of a coin-operated machine may maintain a civil cause of action against a person engaged in the activities covered in subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2) and may recover treble actual damages, reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.
(f) As used in this Section, "substance" means a corrosive or acidic liquid or solid but does not include items purchased through a coin-operated machine at the location or acquired as condiments at the location of the coin-operated machine.
(g) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device peculiar to and marketed for shielding and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-7)
Sec. 16-7. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images.
(a) A person commits unlawful use of recorded sounds or images when he or she knowingly or recklessly:
(1) transfers or causes to be transferred without the

consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the article to which such sounds or recordings of sound are transferred;

(2) sells, offers for sale, advertises for sale, uses

or causes to be used for profit any such article described in subdivision (a)(1) without consent of the owner;

(3) offers or makes available for a fee, rental or

any other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, any equipment or machinery for the purpose of use by another to reproduce or transfer, without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording to another sound or audio visual recording or for the purpose of use by another to manufacture any sound or audio visual recording in violation of subsection (b); or

(4) transfers or causes to be transferred without the

consent of the owner, any live performance with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the sound or audio visual recording to which the performance is transferred.

(b) A person commits unlawful use of unidentified sound or audio visual recordings when he or she knowingly, recklessly, or negligently for profit manufacturers, sells, distributes, vends, circulates, performs, leases, possesses, or otherwise deals in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings or causes the manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, or other dealing in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings.
(c) For the purposes of this Section, "owner" means the person who owns the master sound recording on which sound is recorded and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly or indirectly derived, or the person who owns the rights to record or authorize the recording of a live performance.
For the purposes of this Section, "manufacturer" means the person who actually makes or causes to be made a sound or audio visual recording. "Manufacturer" does not include a person who manufactures the medium upon which sounds or visual images can be recorded or stored, or who manufactures the cartridge or casing itself.
(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images or unidentified sound or audio visual recordings is a Class 4 felony; however:
(1) If the offense involves more than 100 but not

exceeding 1000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 7 but not exceeding 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $100,000; and

(2) If the offense involves more than 1,000

unidentified sound recordings or more than 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $250,000.

(e) Upon conviction of any violation of subsection (b), the offender shall be sentenced to make restitution to any owner or lawful producer of a master sound or audio visual recording, or to the trade association representing such owner or lawful producer, that has suffered injury resulting from the crime. The order of restitution shall be based on the aggregate wholesale value of lawfully manufactured and authorized sound or audio visual recordings corresponding to the non-conforming recorded devices involved in the offense, and shall include investigative costs relating to the offense.
(f) Subsection (a) of this Section shall neither enlarge nor diminish the rights of parties in private litigation.
(g) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to any person engaged in the business of radio or television broadcasting who transfers, or causes to be transferred, any sounds (other than from the sound track of a motion picture) solely for the purpose of broadcast transmission.
(h) Each individual manufacture, distribution or sale or transfer for a consideration of such recorded devices in contravention of subsection (a) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section. Each individual manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, possession, or other dealing in and with an unidentified sound or audio visual recording under subsection (b) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section.
(i) Any sound or audio visual recordings containing transferred sounds or a performance whose transfer was not authorized by the owner of the master sound recording or performance, or any unidentified sound or audio visual recording used, in violation of this Section, or in the attempt to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-4, or in a conspiracy to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-2, or in a solicitation to commit such offense as defined in Section 8-1, may be confiscated and destroyed upon conclusion of the case or cases to which they are relevant, except that the court may enter an order preserving them as evidence for use in other cases or pending the final determination of an appeal.
(j) It is an affirmative defense to any charge of unlawful use of recorded sounds or images that the recorded sounds or images so used are public domain material. For purposes of this Section, recorded sounds are deemed to be in the public domain if the recorded sounds were copyrighted pursuant to the copyright laws of the United States, as the same may be amended from time to time, and the term of the copyright and any extensions or renewals thereof has expired.
(k) With respect to sound recordings (other than accompanying a motion picture or other audiovisual work), this Section applies only to sound recordings that were initially recorded before February 15, 1972.
(Source: P.A. 97-538, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-8)
Sec. 16-8. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-485, eff. 1-1-08. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-10)
Sec. 16-10. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-11)
Sec. 16-11. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 88-466. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-12)
Sec. 16-12. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 88-466. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-13)
Sec. 16-13. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 83-519. Repealed by P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-14)
Sec. 16-14. Theft of utility services.
(a) A person commits theft of utility services when he or she knowingly, without authority, diverts or interferes with any public water, gas, power supply, or other public services or installs any device with the intent to divert or interfere with any public water, gas, power supply, or other public services without the authority of the owner or entity furnishing or transmitting such product or services.
(b) Sentence.
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a violation

of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor unless the offense was committed for remuneration, in which case it is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a second or

subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(3) If the offense causes disruption of the public

utility services or delay in the restoration of the public utility services to 10 or more customers or affects an area of more than one square mile, a violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(c) This Section does not apply to the theft of telecommunication services.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-15)
Sec. 16-15. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-16)
Sec. 16-16. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-347, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-16.1)
Sec. 16-16.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 97-347, eff. 1-1-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-17)
Sec. 16-17. Theft of advertising services.
(a) A person commits theft of advertising services when he or she knowingly attaches or inserts an unauthorized advertisement in a newspaper or periodical, and redistributes it to the public or has the intent to redistribute it to the public.
(b) This Section applies to any newspaper or periodical that is offered for retail sale or is distributed without charge.
(c) This Section does not apply if the publisher or authorized distributor of the newspaper or periodical consents to the attachment or insertion of the advertisement.
(d) In this Section, "unauthorized advertisement" means any form of representation or communication, including any handbill, newsletter, pamphlet, or notice that contains any letters, words, or pictorial representation that is attached to or inserted in a newspaper or periodical without a contractual agreement between the publisher and an advertiser.
(e) Sentence. Theft of advertising services is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-18)
Sec. 16-18. Tampering with communication services; theft of communication services.
(a) Injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud. A person commits injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud when he or she knowingly:
(1) displaces, removes, injures or destroys any

telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable, pole or conduit, belonging to another, or the material or property appurtenant thereto; or

(2) cuts, breaks, taps, or makes any connection with

any telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable or instrument belonging to another; or

(3) reads, takes or copies any message, communication

or report intended for another passing over any such telegraph line, wire or cable in this State; or

(4) prevents, obstructs or delays by any means or

contrivance whatsoever, the sending, transmission, conveyance or delivery in this State of any message, communication or report by or through any telegraph or telephone line, wire or cable; or

(5) uses any apparatus to unlawfully do or cause to

be done any of the acts described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section; or

(6) obtains, or attempts to obtain, any

telecommunications service with the intent to deprive any person of the lawful charge, in whole or in part, for any telecommunications service:

(A) by charging such service to an existing

telephone number without the authority of the subscriber thereto; or

(B) by charging such service to a nonexistent,

false, fictitious, or counterfeit telephone number or to a suspended, terminated, expired, canceled, or revoked telephone number; or

(C) by use of a code, prearranged scheme, or

other similar stratagem or device whereby said person, in effect, sends or receives information; or

(D) by publishing the number or code of an

existing, canceled, revoked or nonexistent telephone number, credit number or other credit device or method of numbering or coding which is employed in the issuance of telephone numbers, credit numbers or other credit devices which may be used to avoid the payment of any lawful telephone toll charge; or

(E) by any other trick, stratagem, impersonation,

false pretense, false representation, false statement, contrivance, device, or means.

(b) Theft of communication services. A person commits theft of communication services when he or she knowingly:
(1) obtains or uses a communication service without

the authorization of, or compensation paid to, the communication service provider;

(2) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles,

distributes, leases, transfers, or sells, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, lease, use, or distribution, an unlawful communication device:

(A) for the commission of a theft of a

communication service or to receive, disrupt, transmit, decrypt, or acquire, or facilitate the receipt, disruption, transmission, decryption or acquisition, of any communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider; or

(B) to conceal or to assist another to conceal

from any communication service provider or from any lawful authority the existence or place of origin or destination of any communication;

(3) modifies, alters, programs or reprograms a

communication device for the purposes described in subdivision (2)(A) or (2)(B);

(4) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles, leases,

distributes, sells, or transfers, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any unlawful access device; or

(5) possesses, uses, prepares, distributes, gives or

otherwise transfers to another or offers, promotes, or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any:

(A) plans or instructions for making or

assembling an unlawful communication or access device, with the intent to use or employ the unlawful communication or access device, or to allow the same to be used or employed, for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b), or knowing or having reason to know that the plans or instructions are intended to be used for manufacturing or assembling the unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b); or

(B) material, including hardware, cables, tools,

data, computer software or other information or equipment, knowing that the purchaser or a third person intends to use the material in the manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b).

(c) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A

misdemeanor; provided, however, that any of the following is a Class 4 felony:

(A) a second or subsequent conviction for a

violation of subsection (a); or

(B) an offense committed for remuneration; or
(C) an offense involving damage or destruction of

property in an amount in excess of $300 or defrauding of services in excess of $500.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class A

misdemeanor, except that:

(A) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 4

felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves

at least 10, but not more than 50, unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant engages in conduct

identified in subdivision (b)(3) of this Section with the intention of substantially disrupting and impairing the ability of a communication service provider to deliver communication services to its lawful customers or subscribers; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the

commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iv) the defendant at the time of the

commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of this Code for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(v) the aggregate value of the service

obtained is $300 or more; or

(vi) the violation is for a wired

communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(B) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 3

felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves

more than 50 unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant at the time of the

commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the

commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of this Code for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(iv) the violation is for a wired

communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously on 2 or more occasions for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(C) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 2

felony if the violation is for a wireless communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(3) Restitution. The court shall, in addition to any

other sentence authorized by law, sentence a person convicted of violating subsection (b) to make restitution in the manner provided in Article 5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) Grading of offense based on prior convictions. For purposes of grading an offense based upon a prior conviction for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction under subdivisions (c)(2)(A)(i) and (c)(2)(B)(i) of this Section, a prior conviction shall consist of convictions upon separate indictments or criminal complaints for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.
(e) Separate offenses. For purposes of all criminal penalties or fines established for violations of subsection (b), the prohibited activity established in subsection (b) as it applies to each unlawful communication or access device shall be deemed a separate offense.
(f) Forfeiture of unlawful communication or access devices. Upon conviction of a defendant under subsection (b), the court may, in addition to any other sentence authorized by law, direct that the defendant forfeit any unlawful communication or access devices in the defendant's possession or control which were involved in the violation for which the defendant was convicted.
(g) Venue. An offense under subsection (b) may be deemed to have been committed at either the place where the defendant manufactured or assembled an unlawful communication or access device, or assisted others in doing so, or the place where the unlawful communication or access device was sold or delivered to a purchaser or recipient. It is not a defense to a violation of subsection (b) that some of the acts constituting the offense occurred outside of the State of Illinois.
(h) Civil action. For purposes of subsection (b):
(1) Bringing a civil action. Any person aggrieved by

a violation may bring a civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) Powers of the court. The court may:
(A) grant preliminary and final injunctions to

prevent or restrain violations without a showing by the plaintiff of special damages, irreparable harm or inadequacy of other legal remedies;

(B) at any time while an action is pending, order

the impounding, on such terms as it deems reasonable, of any unlawful communication or access device that is in the custody or control of the violator and that the court has reasonable cause to believe was involved in the alleged violation;

(C) award damages as described in subdivision

(h)(3);

(D) award punitive damages;
(E) in its discretion, award reasonable

attorney's fees and costs, including, but not limited to, costs for investigation, testing and expert witness fees, to an aggrieved party who prevails; and

(F) as part of a final judgment or decree finding

a violation, order the remedial modification or destruction of any unlawful communication or access device involved in the violation that is in the custody or control of the violator or has been impounded under subdivision (h)(2)(B).

(3) Types of damages recoverable. Damages awarded by

a court under this Section shall be computed as either of the following:

(A) Upon his or her election of such damages at

any time before final judgment is entered, the complaining party may recover the actual damages suffered by him or her as a result of the violation and any profits of the violator that are attributable to the violation and are not taken into account in computing the actual damages; in determining the violator's profits, the complaining party shall be required to prove only the violator's gross revenue, and the violator shall be required to prove his or her deductible expenses and the elements of profit attributable to factors other than the violation; or

(B) Upon election by the complaining party at any

time before final judgment is entered, that party may recover in lieu of actual damages an award of statutory damages of not less than $250 and not more than $10,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action, with the amount of statutory damages to be determined by the court, as the court considers just. In any case, if the court finds that any of the violations were committed with the intent to obtain commercial advantage or private financial gain, the court in its discretion may increase the award of statutory damages by an amount of not more than $50,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action.

(4) Separate violations. For purposes of all civil

remedies established for violations, the prohibited activity established in this Section applies to each unlawful communication or access device and shall be deemed a separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-19)
Sec. 16-19. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-20)
Sec. 16-20. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 96-497, eff. 1-1-10. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-21)
Sec. 16-21. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-22)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-11.5 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 16-22. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 94-707, eff. 6-1-06. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. RETAIL THEFT
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-25)
Sec. 16-25. Retail theft.
(a) A person commits retail theft when he or she knowingly:
(1) Takes possession of, carries away, transfers or

causes to be carried away or transferred any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment with the intention of retaining such merchandise or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(2) Alters, transfers, or removes any label, price

tag, marking, indicia of value or any other markings which aid in determining value affixed to any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment and attempts to purchase such merchandise at less than the full retail value with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(3) Transfers any merchandise displayed, held, stored

or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment from the container in or on which such merchandise is displayed to any other container with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(4) Under-rings with the intention of depriving the

merchant of the full retail value of the merchandise; or

(5) Removes a shopping cart from the premises of a

retail mercantile establishment without the consent of the merchant given at the time of such removal with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such cart; or

(6) Represents to a merchant that he, she, or another

is the lawful owner of property, knowing that such representation is false, and conveys or attempts to convey that property to a merchant who is the owner of the property in exchange for money, merchandise credit or other property of the merchant; or

(7) Uses or possesses any theft detection shielding

device or theft detection device remover with the intention of using such device to deprive the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(8) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over

property of the owner and thereby intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property when a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner, or if the lessee fails to pay the full retail value of such property to the lessor in satisfaction of any contractual provision requiring such, within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by the lessee and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(b) Theft by emergency exit. A person commits theft by emergency exit when he or she commits a retail theft as defined in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(8) of this Section and to facilitate the theft he or she leaves the retail mercantile establishment by use of a designated emergency exit.
(c) Permissive inference. If any person:
(1) conceals upon his or her person or among his or

her belongings unpurchased merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment; and

(2) removes that merchandise beyond the last known

station for receiving payments for that merchandise in that retail mercantile establishment,

then the trier of fact may infer that the person possessed, carried away or transferred such merchandise with the intention of retaining it or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise.
To "conceal" merchandise means that, although there may be some notice of its presence, that merchandise is not visible through ordinary observation.
(d) Venue. Multiple thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct in different jurisdictions that have been aggregated in one jurisdiction may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which one or more of the thefts occurred.
(e) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device designed and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.
(f) Sentence.
(1) A violation of any of subdivisions (a)(1) through

(a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subdivision (a)(7) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person who has been convicted of retail theft

of property under any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who has been convicted of theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any retail theft of property under any of

subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 3 felony. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 2 felony. When a charge of retail theft of property or theft by emergency exit of property, the full value of which exceeds $300, is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $300.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-26)
Sec. 16-26. Detention; affirmative defense.
(a) Detention. Any merchant who has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed retail theft may detain the person, on or off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment, in a reasonable manner and for a reasonable length of time for all or any of the following purposes:
(1) To request identification;
(2) To verify such identification;
(3) To make reasonable inquiry as to whether such

person has in his possession unpurchased merchandise and to make reasonable investigation of the ownership of such merchandise;

(4) To inform a peace officer of the detention of the

person and surrender that person to the custody of a peace officer;

(5) In the case of a minor, to immediately make a

reasonable attempt to inform the parents, guardian or other private person interested in the welfare of that minor and, at the merchant's discretion, a peace officer, of this detention and to surrender custody of such minor to such person.

A merchant may make a detention as permitted in this Section off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment only if such detention is pursuant to an immediate pursuit of such person.
A merchant shall be deemed to have reasonable grounds to make a detention for the purposes of this Section if the merchant detains a person because such person has in his or her possession either a theft detection shielding device or a theft detection device remover.
(b) Affirmative defense. A detention as permitted in this Section does not constitute an arrest or an unlawful restraint, as defined in Section 10-3 of this Code, nor shall it render the merchant liable to the person so detained.
(c) For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-27)
Sec. 16-27. Civil liability.
(a) A person who commits the offense of retail theft as defined in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(8) of Section 16-25 shall be civilly liable to the merchant of the merchandise in an amount consisting of:
(i) actual damages equal to the full retail value of

the merchandise; plus

(ii) an amount not less than $100 nor more than

$1,000; plus

(iii) attorney's fees and court costs.
(b) If a minor commits the offense of retail theft, the parents or guardian of the minor shall be civilly liable as provided in this Section; however, a guardian appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall not be liable under this Section. Total recovery under this Section shall not exceed the maximum recovery permitted under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law. For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.
(c) A conviction or a plea of guilty to the offense of retail theft is not a prerequisite to the bringing of a civil suit under this Section.
(d) Judgments arising under this Section may be assigned.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-28)
Sec. 16-28. Delivery container theft.
(a) A person commits delivery container theft when he or she knowingly does any of the following:
(1) Uses for any purpose, when not on the premises of

the owner or an adjacent parking area, a delivery container of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the use is authorized by the owner.

(2) Sells, or offers for sale, a delivery container

of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the sale is authorized by the owner.

(3) Defaces, obliterates, destroys, covers up or

otherwise removes or conceals a name or mark on a delivery container of another person without the written consent of the owner.

(4) Removes the delivery container of another person

from the premises, parking area or any other area under the control of any processor, distributor or retail establishment, or from any delivery vehicle, without the consent of the owner of the delivery container. If a person possesses any marked or named delivery container without the consent of the owner and while not on the premises, parking area or other area under control of a processor, distributor or retail establishment doing business with the owner, the trier of fact may infer that the person removed the delivery container in violation of this paragraph.

(b) Any common carrier or private carrier for hire, except those engaged in transporting bakery or dairy products to and from the places where they are produced, that receives or transports any delivery container marked with a name or mark without having in its possession a bill of lading or invoice for that delivery container commits the offense of delivery container theft.
(c) Sentence. Delivery container theft is a Class B misdemeanor. An offender may be sentenced to pay a fine of $150 for the first offense and $500 for a second or subsequent offense.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 15 heading)

SUBDIVISION 15. IDENTITY THEFT
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-30)
Sec. 16-30. Identity theft; aggravated identity theft.
(a) A person commits identity theft when he or she knowingly:
(1) uses any personal identifying information or

personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property;

(2) uses any personal identification information or

personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a);

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers,

purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony;

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells,

transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identification information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority;

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making

implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony;

(6) uses any personal identification information or

personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identification information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7) uses any personal identification information or

personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7.5) uses, possesses, or transfers a radio

frequency identification device capable of obtaining or processing personal identifying information from a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag or transponder with knowledge that the device will be used by the person or another to commit a felony violation of State law or any violation of this Article; or

(8) in the course of applying for a building permit

with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a roofing or fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing or fire sprinkler portion of the project; it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this paragraph (8) that the building permit applicant promptly informed the unit of local government that issued the building permit of any change in the roofing or fire sprinkler contractor.

(b) Aggravated identity theft. A person commits aggravated identity theft when he or she commits identity theft as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section:
(1) against a person 60 years of age or older or a

person with a disability; or

(2) in furtherance of the activities of an organized

gang.

A defense to aggravated identity theft does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age. For the purposes of this subsection, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
(c) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.
(d) When a charge of identity theft or aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.
(e) Sentence.
(1) Identity theft.
(A) A person convicted of identity theft in

violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(i) Identity theft of credit, money, goods,

services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 3 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(ii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods,

services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 2 felony.

(iii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods,

services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 1 felony.

(iv) Identity theft of credit, money, goods,

services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class X felony.

(v) Identity theft of credit, money, goods,

services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(B) A person convicted of any offense enumerated

in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(C) A person convicted of any offense enumerated

in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(D) A person who, within a 12-month period, is

found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(E) A person convicted of identity theft in

violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony for a first offense and a Class X felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(F) A person convicted of identity theft in

violation of paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Aggravated identity theft.
(A) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money,

goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(B) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money,

goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(C) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money,

goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 in value and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(D) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money,

goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(E) Aggravated identity theft for a violation of

any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(F) Aggravated identity theft when a person who,

within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section with identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is a Class 1 felony.

(G) A person who has been previously convicted of

aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-333, eff. 8-12-11, and 97-388, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-31)
Sec. 16-31. Transmission of personal identifying information.
(a) A person commits transmission of personal identifying information if he or she is not a party to a transaction that involves the use of a financial transaction device and knowingly: (i) secretly or surreptitiously photographs, or otherwise captures or records, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted, or (ii) distributes, disseminates, or transmits, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed, or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted.
(b) This Section does not:
(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal

identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the

federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a person from being charged with,

convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate this Section.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-32)
Sec. 16-32. Facilitating identity theft.
(a) A person commits facilitating identity theft when he or she, in the course of his or her employment or official duties, has access to the personal information of another person in the possession of the State of Illinois, whether written, recorded, or on computer disk, and knowingly, with the intent of committing identity theft, aggravated identity theft, or any violation of the Illinois Financial Crime Law, disposes of that written, recorded, or computerized information in any receptacle, trash can, or other container that the public could gain access to, without shredding that information, destroying the recording, or wiping the computer disk so that the information is either unintelligible or destroyed.
(b) Sentence. Facilitating identity theft is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.
(c) For purposes of this Section, "personal information" has the meaning provided in the Personal Information Protection Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-33)
Sec. 16-33. Civil remedies. A person who is convicted of facilitating identity theft, identity theft, or aggravated identity theft is liable in a civil action to the person who suffered damages as a result of the violation. The person suffering damages may recover court costs, attorney's fees, lost wages, and actual damages. Where a person has been convicted of identity theft in violation of subdivision (a)(6) or subdivision (a)(7) of Section 16-30, in the absence of proof of actual damages, the person whose personal identification information or personal identification documents were used in the violation in question may recover damages of $2,000.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-34)
Sec. 16-34. Offender's interest in the property; consent.
(a) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender has an interest in the credit, money, goods, services, or other property.
(b) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender received the consent of any person to access any personal identification information or personal identification document, other than the person described by the personal identification information or personal identification document used by the offender.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-35)
Sec. 16-35. Mandating law enforcement agencies to accept and provide reports; judicial factual determination.
(a) A person who has learned or reasonably suspects that his or her personal identifying information has been unlawfully used by another may initiate a law enforcement investigation by contacting the local law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over his or her actual residence, which shall take a police report of the matter, provide the complainant with a copy of that report, and begin an investigation of the facts, or, if the suspected crime was committed in a different jurisdiction, refer the matter to the law enforcement agency where the suspected crime was committed for an investigation of the facts.
(b) A person who reasonably believes that he or she is the victim of financial identity theft may petition a court, or upon application of the prosecuting attorney or on its own motion, the court may move for an expedited judicial determination of his or her factual innocence, where the perpetrator of the financial identity theft was arrested for, cited for, or convicted of a crime under the victim's identity, or where a criminal complaint has been filed against the perpetrator in the victim's name, or where the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a criminal conviction. Any judicial determination of factual innocence made pursuant to this subsection may be heard and determined upon declarations, affidavits, police reports, or other material, relevant, and reliable information submitted by the parties or ordered to be part of the record by the court. If the court determines that the petition or motion is meritorious and that there is no reasonable cause to believe that the victim committed the offense for which the perpetrator of the identity theft was arrested, cited, convicted, or subject to a criminal complaint in the victim's name, or that the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a record of criminal conviction, the court shall find the victim factually innocent of that offense. If the victim is found factually innocent, the court shall issue an order certifying this determination.
(c) After a court has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section, the court may order the name and associated personal identifying information contained in the court records, files, and indexes accessible by the public sealed, deleted, or labeled to show that the data is impersonated and does not reflect the defendant's identity.
(d) A court that has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section may at any time vacate that determination if the petition, or any information submitted in support of the petition, is found to contain any material misrepresentation or fraud.
(e) Except for criminal and civil actions provided for by Sections 16-30 through 16-36, or for disciplinary or licensure-related proceedings involving the violation of Sections 16-30 through 16-36, no information acquired by, or as a result of, any violation of Section 16-30 shall be discoverable or admissible in any court or other proceeding, or otherwise subject to disclosure without the express permission of any person or persons identified in that information.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-36)
Sec. 16-36. Venue. In addition to any other venues provided for by statute or otherwise, venue for any criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall be proper in any county where the person described in the personal identification information or personal identification document in question resides or has his or her principal place of business. Where a criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 involves the personal identification information or personal identification documents of more than one person, venue shall be proper in any county where one or more of the persons described in the personal identification information or personal identification documents in question resides or has his or her principal place of business.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-37)
Sec. 16-37. Exemptions; relation to other laws.
(a) Sections 16-30 through 16-36 do not:
(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal

identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the

federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a licensed private detective or licensed

private detective agency from representing himself, herself, or itself as another person, provided that he, she, or it may not portray himself, herself, or itself as the person whose information he, she, or it is seeking except as provided under Sections 16-30 through 16-36;

(4) apply to activities authorized under any other

statute.

(b) No criminal prosecution or civil action brought under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall prohibit a person from being charged with, convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate Sections 16-30 through 16-36.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 20 heading)

SUBDIVISION 20. MISCELLANEOUS THEFT-RELATED OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/16-40)
Sec. 16-40. Internet offenses.
(a) Online sale of stolen property. A person commits online sale of stolen property when he or she uses or accesses the Internet with the intent of selling property gained through unlawful means.
(b) Online theft by deception. A person commits online theft by deception when he or she uses the Internet to purchase or attempt to purchase property from a seller with a mode of payment that he or she knows is fictitious, stolen, or lacking the consent of the valid account holder.
(c) Electronic fencing. A person commits electronic fencing when he or she sells stolen property using the Internet, knowing that the property was stolen. A person who unknowingly purchases stolen property over the Internet does not violate this Section.
(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception does not exceed $300. A violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception exceeds $300.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16A heading)

ARTICLE 16A. RETAIL THEFT
(Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16B heading)

ARTICLE 16B. PROTECTION OF LIBRARY MATERIALS
(Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16C heading)

ARTICLE 16C. UNLAWFUL SALE OF HOUSEHOLD APPLIANCES
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16D heading)

ARTICLE 16D.
COMPUTER CRIME
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16E heading)

ARTICLE 16E. DELIVERY CONTAINER CRIME
(Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16F heading)

ARTICLE 16F. WIRELESS SERVICE THEFT
(Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16G heading)

ARTICLE 16G. IDENTITY THEFT LAW
(Repealed)
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16H heading)

ARTICLE 16H. ILLINOIS FINANCIAL CRIME LAW
(Repealed)
(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16J heading)

ARTICLE 16J. ONLINE PROPERTY OFFENSES
(Repealed)
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16K heading)

ARTICLE 16K. THEFT OF MOTOR FUEL
(Repealed)
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17 heading)

ARTICLE 17. DECEPTION AND FRAUD
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. GENERAL DEFINITIONS
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-0.5)
Sec. 17-0.5. Definitions. In this Article:
"Altered credit card or debit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card or debit card, which has been changed in any respect by addition or deletion of any material, except for the signature by the person to whom the card is issued.
"Cardholder" means the person or organization named on the face of a credit card or debit card to whom or for whose benefit the credit card or debit card is issued by an issuer.
"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves, or outputs data and includes, but is not limited to, auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.
"Computer network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities including more than one computer with the capability to transmit data between them through the communications facilities.
"Computer program" or "program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer which causes the computer to process data and supply the results of the data processing.
"Computer services" means computer time or services, including data processing services, Internet services, electronic mail services, electronic message services, or information or data stored in connection therewith.
"Counterfeit" means to manufacture, produce or create, by any means, a credit card or debit card without the purported issuer's consent or authorization.
"Credit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card, credit plate, charge plate or any other name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit or in consideration or an undertaking or guaranty by the issuer of the payment of a check drawn by the cardholder.
"Data" means a representation in any form of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions, including program documentation, which is prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is stored or processed in or transmitted by a computer or in a system or network. Data is considered property and may be in any form, including, but not limited to, printouts, magnetic or optical storage media, punch cards, or data stored internally in the memory of the computer.
"Debit card" means any instrument or device, known by any name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services, and anything else of value, payment of which is made against funds previously deposited by the cardholder. A debit card which also can be used to obtain money, goods, services and anything else of value on credit shall not be considered a debit card when it is being used to obtain money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit.
"Document" includes, but is not limited to, any document, representation, or image produced manually, electronically, or by computer.
"Electronic fund transfer terminal" means any machine or device that, when properly activated, will perform any of the following services:
(1) Dispense money as a debit to the cardholder's

account; or

(2) Print the cardholder's account balances on a

statement; or

(3) Transfer funds between a cardholder's accounts; or
(4) Accept payments on a cardholder's loan; or
(5) Dispense cash advances on an open end credit or a

revolving charge agreement; or

(6) Accept deposits to a customer's account; or
(7) Receive inquiries of verification of checks and

dispense information that verifies that funds are available to cover such checks; or

(8) Cause money to be transferred electronically from

a cardholder's account to an account held by any business, firm, retail merchant, corporation, or any other organization.

"Electronic funds transfer system", hereafter referred to as "EFT System", means that system whereby funds are transferred electronically from a cardholder's account to any other account.
"Electronic mail service provider" means any person who (i) is an intermediary in sending or receiving electronic mail and (ii) provides to end-users of electronic mail services the ability to send or receive electronic mail.
"Expired credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because the term on it has elapsed.
"False academic degree" means a certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document purporting to be issued by an institution of higher learning or purporting to indicate that a person has completed an organized academic program of study at an institution of higher learning when the person has not completed the organized academic program of study indicated on the certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document.
"False claim" means any statement made to any insurer, purported insurer, servicing corporation, insurance broker, or insurance agent, or any agent or employee of one of those entities, and made as part of, or in support of, a claim for payment or other benefit under a policy of insurance, or as part of, or in support of, an application for the issuance of, or the rating of, any insurance policy, when the statement does any of the following:
(1) Contains any false, incomplete, or misleading

information concerning any fact or thing material to the claim.

(2) Conceals (i) the occurrence of an event that is

material to any person's initial or continued right or entitlement to any insurance benefit or payment or (ii) the amount of any benefit or payment to which the person is entitled.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other depository of money or medium of savings and collective investment.
"Governmental entity" means: each officer, board, commission, and agency created by the Constitution, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of State government; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, and body politic and corporate of the State; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of State government that is created by or pursuant to statute, including units of local government and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the foregoing items and as may be created by executive order of the Governor.
"Incomplete credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is missing part of the matter other than the signature of the cardholder which an issuer requires to appear on the credit card or debit card before it can be used by a cardholder, and this includes credit cards or debit cards which have not been stamped, embossed, imprinted or written on.
"Institution of higher learning" means a public or private college, university, or community college located in the State of Illinois that is authorized by the Board of Higher Education or the Illinois Community College Board to issue post-secondary degrees, or a public or private college, university, or community college located anywhere in the United States that is or has been legally constituted to offer degrees and instruction in its state of origin or incorporation.
"Insurance company" means "company" as defined under Section 2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
"Issuer" means the business organization or financial institution which issues a credit card or debit card, or its duly authorized agent.
"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.
"Person" means any individual, corporation, government, governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association or any other entity.
"Receives" or "receiving" means acquiring possession or control.
"Record of charge form" means any document submitted or intended to be submitted to an issuer as evidence of a credit transaction for which the issuer has agreed to reimburse persons providing money, goods, property, services or other things of value.
"Revoked credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because permission to use it has been suspended or terminated by the issuer.
"Sale" means any delivery for value.
"Scheme or artifice to defraud" includes a scheme or artifice to deprive another of the intangible right to honest services.
"Self-insured entity" means any person, business, partnership, corporation, or organization that sets aside funds to meet his, her, or its losses or to absorb fluctuations in the amount of loss, the losses being charged against the funds set aside or accumulated.
"Social networking website" means an Internet website containing profile web pages of the members of the website that include the names or nicknames of such members, photographs placed on the profile web pages by such members, or any other personal or personally identifying information about such members and links to other profile web pages on social networking websites of friends or associates of such members that can be accessed by other members or visitors to the website. A social networking website provides members of or visitors to such website the ability to leave messages or comments on the profile web page that are visible to all or some visitors to the profile web page and may also include a form of electronic mail for members of the social networking website.
"Statement" means any assertion, oral, written, or otherwise, and includes, but is not limited to: any notice, letter, or memorandum; proof of loss; bill of lading; receipt for payment; invoice, account, or other financial statement; estimate of property damage; bill for services; diagnosis or prognosis; prescription; hospital, medical, or dental chart or other record, x-ray, photograph, videotape, or movie film; test result; other evidence of loss, injury, or expense; computer-generated document; and data in any form.
"Universal Price Code Label" means a unique symbol that consists of a machine-readable code and human-readable numbers.
"With intent to defraud" means to act knowingly, and with the specific intent to deceive or cheat, for the purpose of causing financial loss to another or bringing some financial gain to oneself, regardless of whether any person was actually defrauded or deceived. This includes an intent to cause another to assume, create, transfer, alter, or terminate any right, obligation, or power with reference to any person or property.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. DECEPTION
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-1)
Sec. 17-1. Deceptive practices.

(A) General deception.
A person commits a deceptive practice when, with intent to defraud, the person does any of the following:
(1) He or she knowingly causes another, by deception

or threat, to execute a document disposing of property or a document by which a pecuniary obligation is incurred.

(2) Being an officer, manager or other person

participating in the direction of a financial institution, he or she knowingly receives or permits the receipt of a deposit or other investment, knowing that the institution is insolvent.

(3) He or she knowingly makes a false or deceptive

statement addressed to the public for the purpose of promoting the sale of property or services.



(B) Bad checks.
A person commits a deceptive practice when:
(1) With intent to obtain control over property or to

pay for property, labor or services of another, or in satisfaction of an obligation for payment of tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or any other tax due to the State of Illinois, he or she issues or delivers a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository. The trier of fact may infer that the defendant knows that the check or other order will not be paid by the depository and that the defendant has acted with intent to defraud when the defendant fails to have sufficient funds or credit with the depository when the check or other order is issued or delivered, or when such check or other order is presented for payment and dishonored on each of 2 occasions at least 7 days apart. In this paragraph (B)(1), "property" includes rental property (real or personal).

(2) He or she issues or delivers a check or other

order upon a real or fictitious depository in an amount exceeding $150 in payment of an amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, or in payment of the entire amount owed on any credit transaction for property, labor or services, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, and thereafter fails to provide funds or credit with the depository in the face amount of the check or order within 7 days of receiving actual notice from the depository or payee of the dishonor of the check or order.



(C) Bank-related fraud.
(1) False statement.
A person commits false statement bank fraud if he or she, with intent to defraud, makes or causes to be made any false statement in writing in order to obtain an account with a bank or other financial institution, or to obtain credit from a bank or other financial institution, or to obtain services from a currency exchange, knowing such writing to be false, and with the intent that it be relied upon.
For purposes of this subsection (C), a false statement means any false statement representing identity, address, or employment, or the identity, address, or employment of any person, firm, or corporation.
(2) Possession of stolen or fraudulently obtained checks.
A person commits possession of stolen or fraudulently obtained checks when he or she possesses, with the intent to obtain access to funds of another person held in a real or fictitious deposit account at a financial institution, makes a false statement or a misrepresentation to the financial institution, or possesses, transfers, negotiates, or presents for payment a check, draft, or other item purported to direct the financial institution to withdraw or pay funds out of the account holder's deposit account with knowledge that such possession, transfer, negotiation, or presentment is not authorized by the account holder or the issuing financial institution. A person shall be deemed to have been authorized to possess, transfer, negotiate, or present for payment such item if the person was otherwise entitled by law to withdraw or recover funds from the account in question and followed the requisite procedures under the law. If the account holder, upon discovery of the withdrawal or payment, claims that the withdrawal or payment was not authorized, the financial institution may require the account holder to submit an affidavit to that effect on a form satisfactory to the financial institution before the financial institution may be required to credit the account in an amount equal to the amount or amounts that were withdrawn or paid without authorization.
(3) Possession of implements of check fraud.
A person commits possession of implements of check fraud when he or she possesses, with the intent to defraud and without the authority of the account holder or financial institution, any check imprinter, signature imprinter, or "certified" stamp.

(D) Sentence.
(1) The commission of a deceptive practice in

violation of this Section, except as otherwise provided by this subsection (D), is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) For purposes of paragraphs (A)(1) and (B)(1):
(a) The commission of a deceptive practice in

violation of paragraph (A)(1) or (B)(1), when the value of the property so obtained, in a single transaction or in separate transactions within a 90-day period, exceeds $150, is a Class 4 felony. In the case of a prosecution for separate transactions totaling more than $150 within a 90-day period, those separate transactions shall be alleged in a single charge and prosecuted in a single prosecution.

(b) The commission of a deceptive practice in

violation of paragraph (B)(1) a second or subsequent time is a Class 4 felony.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (C)(2), a person who,

within any 12-month period, violates paragraph (C)(2) with respect to 3 or more checks or orders for the payment of money at the same time or consecutively, each the property of a different account holder or financial institution, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (C)(3), a person who

within any 12-month period violates paragraph (C)(3) as to possession of 3 or more such devices at the same time or consecutively is guilty of a Class 4 felony.



(E) Civil liability. A person who issues a check or order to a payee in violation of paragraph (B)(1) and who fails to pay the amount of the check or order to the payee within 30 days following either delivery and acceptance by the addressee of a written demand both by certified mail and by first class mail to the person's last known address or attempted delivery of a written demand sent both by certified mail and by first class mail to the person's last known address and the demand by certified mail is returned to the sender with a notation that delivery was refused or unclaimed shall be liable to the payee or a person subrogated to the rights of the payee for, in addition to the amount owing upon such check or order, damages of treble the amount so owing, but in no case less than $100 nor more than $1,500, plus attorney's fees and court costs. An action under this subsection (E) may be brought in small claims court or in any other appropriate court. As part of the written demand required by this subsection (E), the plaintiff shall provide written notice to the defendant of the fact that prior to the hearing of any action under this subsection (E), the defendant may tender to the plaintiff and the plaintiff shall accept, as satisfaction of the claim, an amount of money equal to the sum of the amount of the check and the incurred court costs, including the cost of service of process, and attorney's fees.
(Source: P.A. 96-1432, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-1a) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-1a)
Sec. 17-1a. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 90-721, eff. 1-1-99. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-1b)
Sec. 17-1b. State's Attorney's bad check diversion program.
(a) In this Section:
"Offender" means a person charged with, or for whom probable cause exists to charge the person with, deceptive practices.
"Pretrial diversion" means the decision of a prosecutor to refer an offender to a diversion program on condition that the criminal charges against the offender will be dismissed after a specified period of time, or the case will not be charged, if the offender successfully completes the program.
"Restitution" means all amounts payable to a victim of deceptive practices under the bad check diversion program created under this Section, including the amount of the check and any transaction fees payable to a victim as set forth in subsection (g) but does not include amounts recoverable under Section 3-806 of the Uniform Commercial Code and subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of this Code.
(b) A State's Attorney may create within his or her office a bad check diversion program for offenders who agree to voluntarily participate in the program instead of undergoing prosecution. The program may be conducted by the State's Attorney or by a private entity under contract with the State's Attorney. If the State's Attorney contracts with a private entity to perform any services in operating the program, the entity shall operate under the supervision, direction, and control of the State's Attorney. Any private entity providing services under this Section is not a "collection agency" as that term is defined under the Collection Agency Act.
(c) If an offender is referred to the State's Attorney, the State's Attorney may determine whether the offender is appropriate for acceptance in the program. The State's Attorney may consider, but shall not be limited to consideration of, the following factors:
(1) the amount of the check that was drawn or passed;
(2) prior referrals of the offender to the program;
(3) whether other charges of deceptive practices are

pending against the offender;

(4) the evidence presented to the State's Attorney

regarding the facts and circumstances of the incident;

(5) the offender's criminal history; and
(6) the reason the check was dishonored by the

financial institution.

(d) The bad check diversion program may require an offender to do one or more of the following:
(i) pay for, at his or her own expense, and

successfully complete an educational class held by the State's Attorney or a private entity under contract with the State's Attorney;

(ii) make full restitution for the offense;
(iii) pay a per-check administrative fee as set forth

in this Section.

(e) If an offender is diverted to the program, the State's Attorney shall agree in writing not to prosecute the offender upon the offender's successful completion of the program conditions. The State's Attorney's agreement to divert the offender shall specify the offenses that will not be prosecuted by identifying the checks involved in the transactions.
(f) The State's Attorney, or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney, may collect a fee from an offender diverted to the State's Attorney's bad check diversion program. This fee may be deposited in a bank account maintained by the State's Attorney for the purpose of depositing fees and paying the expenses of the program or for use in the enforcement and prosecution of criminal laws. The State's Attorney may require that the fee be paid directly to a private entity that administers the program under a contract with the State's Attorney. The amount of the administrative fees collected by the State's Attorney under the program may not exceed $35 per check. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the cost of providing the service.
(g) (1) The private entity shall be required to maintain

adequate general liability insurance of $1,000,000 per occurrence as well as adequate coverage for potential loss resulting from employee dishonesty. The State's Attorney may require a surety bond payable to the State's Attorney if in the State's Attorney's opinion it is determined that the private entity is not adequately insured or funded.

(2) (A) Each private entity that has a contract with

the State's Attorney to conduct a bad check diversion program shall at all times maintain a separate bank account in which all moneys received from the offenders participating in the program shall be deposited, referred to as a "trust account", except that negotiable instruments received may be forwarded directly to a victim of the deceptive practice committed by the offender if that procedure is provided for by a writing executed by the victim. Moneys received shall be so deposited within 5 business days after posting to the private entity's books of account. There shall be sufficient funds in the trust account at all times to pay the victims the amount due them.

(B) The trust account shall be established in a

financial institution which is federally or State insured or otherwise secured as defined by rule. If the account is interest bearing, the private entity shall pay to the victim interest earned on funds on deposit after the 60th day.

(C) Each private entity shall keep on file the

name of the financial institution in which each trust account is maintained, the name of each trust account, and the names of the persons authorized to withdraw funds from each account. The private entity, within 30 days of the time of a change of depository or person authorized to make withdrawal, shall update its files to reflect that change. An examination and audit of a private entity's trust accounts may be made by the State's Attorney as the State's Attorney deems appropriate. A trust account financial report shall be submitted annually on forms acceptable to the State's Attorney.

(3) The State's Attorney may cancel a contract

entered into with a private entity under this Section for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(A) Conviction of the private entity or the

principals of the private entity of any crime under the laws of any U.S. jurisdiction which is a felony, a misdemeanor an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime which directly relates to the practice of the profession.

(B) A determination that the private entity has

engaged in conduct prohibited in item (4).

(4) The State's Attorney may determine whether the

private entity has engaged in the following prohibited conduct:

(A) Using or threatening to use force or violence

to cause physical harm to an offender, his or her family, or his or her property.

(B) Threatening the seizure, attachment, or sale

of an offender's property where such action can only be taken pursuant to court order without disclosing that prior court proceedings are required.

(C) Disclosing or threatening to disclose

information adversely affecting an offender's reputation for creditworthiness with knowledge the information is false.

(D) Initiating or threatening to initiate

communication with an offender's employer unless there has been a default of the payment of the obligation for at least 30 days and at least 5 days prior written notice, to the last known address of the offender, of the intention to communicate with the employer has been given to the employee, except as expressly permitted by law or court order.

(E) Communicating with the offender or any member

of the offender's family at such a time of day or night and with such frequency as to constitute harassment of the offender or any member of the offender's family. For purposes of this clause (E) the following conduct shall constitute harassment:

(i) Communicating with the offender or any

member of his or her family at any unusual time or place or a time or place known or which should be known to be inconvenient to the offender. In the absence of knowledge of circumstances to the contrary, a private entity shall assume that the convenient time for communicating with a consumer is after 8 o'clock a.m. and before 9 o'clock p.m. local time at the offender's residence.

(ii) The threat of publication or publication

of a list of offenders who allegedly refuse to pay restitution, except by the State's Attorney.

(iii) The threat of advertisement or

advertisement for sale of any restitution to coerce payment of the restitution.

(iv) Causing a telephone to ring or engaging

any person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number.

(v) Using profane, obscene or abusive

language in communicating with an offender, his or her family, or others.

(vi) Disclosing or threatening to disclose

information relating to a offender's case to any other person except the victim and appropriate law enforcement personnel.

(vii) Disclosing or threatening to disclose

information concerning the alleged criminal act which the private entity knows to be reasonably disputed by the offender without disclosing the fact that the offender disputes the accusation.

(viii) Engaging in any conduct which the

State's Attorney finds was intended to cause and did cause mental or physical illness to the offender or his or her family.

(ix) Attempting or threatening to enforce a

right or remedy with knowledge or reason to know that the right or remedy does not exist.

(x) Except as authorized by the State's

Attorney, using any form of communication which simulates legal or judicial process or which gives the appearance of being authorized, issued or approved by a governmental agency or official or by an attorney at law when it is not.

(xi) Using any badge, uniform, or other

indicia of any governmental agency or official, except as authorized by law or by the State's Attorney.

(xii) Except as authorized by the State's

Attorney, conducting business under any name or in any manner which suggests or implies that the private entity is bonded if such private entity is or is a branch of or is affiliated with any governmental agency or court if such private entity is not.

(xiii) Misrepresenting the amount of the

restitution alleged to be owed.

(xiv) Except as authorized by the State's

Attorney, representing that an existing restitution amount may be increased by the addition of attorney's fees, investigation fees, or any other fees or charges when those fees or charges may not legally be added to the existing restitution.

(xv) Except as authorized by the State's

Attorney, representing that the private entity is an attorney at law or an agent for an attorney if the entity is not.

(xvi) Collecting or attempting to collect any

interest or other charge or fee in excess of the actual restitution or claim unless the interest or other charge or fee is expressly authorized by the State's Attorney, who shall determine what constitutes a reasonable collection fee.

(xvii) Communicating or threatening to

communicate with an offender when the private entity is informed in writing by an attorney that the attorney represents the offender concerning the claim, unless authorized by the attorney. If the attorney fails to respond within a reasonable period of time, the private entity may communicate with the offender. The private entity may communicate with the offender when the attorney gives his consent.

(xviii) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical,

or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(5) The State's Attorney shall audit the accounts of

the bad check diversion program after notice in writing to the private entity.

(6) Any information obtained by a private entity that

has a contract with the State's Attorney to conduct a bad check diversion program is confidential information between the State's Attorney and the private entity and may not be sold or used for any other purpose but may be shared with other authorized law enforcement agencies as determined by the State's Attorney.

(h) The State's Attorney, or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney, shall recover, in addition to the face amount of the dishonored check or draft, a transaction fee to defray the costs and expenses incurred by a victim who received a dishonored check that was made or delivered by the offender. The face amount of the dishonored check or draft and the transaction fee shall be paid by the State's Attorney or private entity under contract with the State's Attorney to the victim as restitution for the offense. The amount of the transaction fee must not exceed: $25 if the face amount of the check or draft does not exceed $100; $30 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $100 but does not exceed $250; $35 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $250 but does not exceed $500; $40 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $500 but does not exceed $1,000; and $50 if the face amount of the check or draft is greater than $1,000.
(i) The offender, if aggrieved by an action of the private entity contracted to operate a bad check diversion program, may submit a grievance to the State's Attorney who may then resolve the grievance. The private entity must give notice to the offender that the grievance procedure is available. The grievance procedure shall be established by the State's Attorney.
(Source: P.A. 95-41, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)
Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.
(a) False personation; solicitation.
(1) A person commits a false personation when he or

she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or

she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.5) A person commits a false personation when he or

she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) another actual person and does an act in such

assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) a representative of an actual person or

organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police",

"Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that

he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial

contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting

on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is

controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the

sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial

contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting

on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is

controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the

sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that

he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation

(except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:
(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for

purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an

official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an

official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the

false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.
(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.
(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a

felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a

forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of

a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(7.5) The legal guardian, including any

representative of a State or public guardian, of a disabled person appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(8) A fire fighter.
(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.
(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a

felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any

jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any

jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:
(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform,

badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or

she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.
(1) A company, association, or individual commits

fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c)

prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not

apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.
(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if

he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges

that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.
(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she

knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph

(e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a

theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn,

by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.
(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty

offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(3), or

(b)(7.5) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5),

(a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6),

(b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or

(b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a

Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1

felony.

(g) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.
(Source: P.A. 97-219, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates change to Sec. 32-5 from 97-219; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1125, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-2.5)
Sec. 17-2.5. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-239, eff. 7-22-03. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-3)
Sec. 17-3. Forgery.
(a) A person commits forgery when, with intent to defraud, he or she knowingly:
(1) makes a false document or alters any document to

make it false and that document is apparently capable of defrauding another; or

(2) issues or delivers such document knowing it to

have been thus made or altered; or

(3) possesses, with intent to issue or deliver, any

such document knowing it to have been thus made or altered; or

(4) unlawfully uses the digital signature, as defined

in the Financial Institutions Electronic Documents and Digital Signature Act, of another; or

(5) unlawfully uses the signature device of another

to create an electronic signature of that other person, as those terms are defined in the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(b) (Blank).
(c) A document apparently capable of defrauding another includes, but is not limited to, one by which any right, obligation or power with reference to any person or property may be created, transferred, altered or terminated. A document includes any record or electronic record as those terms are defined in the Electronic Commerce Security Act. For purposes of this Section, a document also includes a Universal Price Code Label or coin.
(c-5) For purposes of this Section, "false document" or "document that is false" includes, but is not limited to, a document whose contents are false in some material way, or that purports to have been made by another or at another time, or with different provisions, or by authority of one who did not give such authority.
(d) Sentence.
(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3),

forgery is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Forgery is a Class 4 felony when only one

Universal Price Code Label is forged.

(3) Forgery is a Class A misdemeanor when an academic

degree or coin is forged.

(e) It is not a violation of this Section if a false academic degree explicitly states "for novelty purposes only".
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-231, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-3.5)
Sec. 17-3.5. Deceptive sale of gold or silver.
(a) Whoever makes for sale, or sells, or offers to sell or dispose of, or has in his or her possession with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles construed in whole or in part, of gold or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale, any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trade mark, imprint or other mark, indicating or designed, or intended to indicate, that the gold, alloy or imitation thereof, in such article or articles, is different from or better than the actual kind and quality of such gold, alloy or imitation, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 nor more than $100.
(b) Whoever makes for sale, sells or offers to sell or dispose of or has in his or her possession, with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles constructed in whole or in part of silver or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon--or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale--any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trademark, imprint or other mark, containing the words "sterling" or "sterling silver," referring, or designed or intended to refer, to the silver, alloy or imitation thereof in such article or articles, when such silver, alloy or imitation thereof shall contain less than nine hundred and twenty-five one-thousandths thereof of pure silver, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 nor more than $100.
(c) Whoever makes for sale, sells or offers to sell or dispose of or has in his or her possession, with intent to sell or dispose of, any article or articles constructed in whole or in part of silver or any alloy or imitation thereof, having thereon--or on any box, package, cover, wrapper or other thing enclosing or encasing such article or articles for sale--any stamp, brand, engraving, printed label, trademark, imprint, or other mark, containing the words "coin" or "coin silver," referring to or designed or intended to refer to, the silver, alloy or imitation thereof, in such article or articles, when such silver, alloy or imitation shall contain less than nine-tenths thereof pure silver, shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined in any sum not less than $50 and not more than $100.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-4)
Sec. 17-4. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 77-2638. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-5)
Sec. 17-5. Deceptive collection practices.
A collection agency as defined in the Collection Agency Act or any employee of such collection agency commits a deceptive collection practice when, with the intent to collect a debt owed to an individual or a corporation or other entity, he, she, or it does any of the following:
(a) Represents falsely that he or she is an attorney, a policeman, a sheriff or deputy sheriff, a bailiff, a county clerk or employee of a county clerk's office, or any other person who by statute is authorized to enforce the law or any order of a court.
(b) While attempting to collect an alleged debt, misrepresents to the alleged debtor or to his or her immediate family the corporate, partnership or proprietary name or other trade or business name under which the debt collector is engaging in debt collections and which he, she, or it is legally authorized to use.
(c) While attempting to collect an alleged debt, adds to the debt any service charge, interest or penalty which he, she, or it is not entitled by law to add.
(d) Threatens to ruin, destroy, or otherwise adversely affect an alleged debtor's credit rating unless, at the same time, a disclosure is made in accordance with federal law that the alleged debtor has a right to inspect his or her credit rating.
(e) Accepts from an alleged debtor a payment which he, she, or it knows is not owed.
Sentence. The commission of a deceptive collection practice is a Business Offense punishable by a fine not to exceed $3,000.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-5.5)
Sec. 17-5.5. Unlawful attempt to collect compensated debt against a crime victim.
(a) A person or a vendor commits unlawful attempt to collect a compensated debt against a crime victim when, with intent to collect funds for a debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim, which debt has been approved for payment by the Court of Claims under the Crime Victims Compensation Act, but the funds are involuntarily withheld from the person or vendor by the Comptroller by virtue of an outstanding obligation owed by the person or vendor to the State under the Uncollected State Claims Act, the person or vendor:
(1) communicates with, harasses, or intimidates the

crime victim for payment;

(2) contacts or distributes information to affect the

compensated crime victim's credit rating as a result of the compensated debt; or

(3) takes any other action adverse to the crime

victim or his or her family on account of the compensated debt.

(b) Sentence. Unlawful attempt to collect a compensated debt against a crime victim is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) Nothing in this Code prevents the attempt to collect an uncompensated debt or an uncompensated portion of a compensated debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim and not covered under the Crime Victims Compensation Act.
(d) As used in this Section, "crime victim" means a victim of a violent crime or applicant as defined in the Crime Victims Compensation Act. "Compensated debt" means a debt incurred by or on behalf of a crime victim and approved for payment by the Court of Claims under the Crime Victims Compensation Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-5.7)
Sec. 17-5.7. Deceptive advertising.
(a) Any person, firm, corporation or association or agent or employee thereof, who, with intent to sell, purchase, or in any wise dispose of, or to contract with reference to merchandise, securities, real estate, service, employment, money, credit or anything offered by such person, firm, corporation or association, or agent or employee thereof, directly or indirectly, to the public for sale, purchase, loan, distribution, or the hire of personal services, or with intent to increase the consumption of or to contract with reference to any merchandise, real estate, securities, money, credit, loan, service or employment, or to induce the public in any manner to enter into any obligation relating thereto, or to acquire title thereto, or an interest therein, or to make any loan, makes, publishes, disseminates, circulates, or places before the public, or causes, directly or indirectly, to be made, published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public, in this State, in a newspaper, magazine, or other publication, or in the form of a book, notice, handbill, poster, sign, bill, circular, pamphlet, letter, placard, card, label, or over any radio or television station, or in any other way similar or dissimilar to the foregoing, an advertisement, announcement, or statement of any sort regarding merchandise, securities, real estate, money, credit, service, employment, or anything so offered for use, purchase, loan or sale, or the interest, terms or conditions upon which such loan will be made to the public, which advertisement contains any assertion, representation or statement of fact which is untrue, misleading or deceptive, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(b) Any person, firm or corporation offering for sale merchandise, commodities or service by making, publishing, disseminating, circulating or placing before the public within this State in any manner an advertisement of merchandise, commodities, or service, with the intent, design or purpose not to sell the merchandise, commodities, or service so advertised at the price stated therein, or otherwise communicated, or with intent not to sell the merchandise, commodities, or service so advertised, may be enjoined from such advertising upon application for injunctive relief by the State's Attorney or Attorney General, and shall also be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) Any person, firm or corporation who makes, publishes, disseminates, circulates or places before the public, or causes, directly or indirectly to be made, published, disseminated, circulated or placed before the public, in this State, in a newspaper, magazine or other publication published in this State, or in the form of a book, notice, handbill, poster, sign, bill, circular, pamphlet, letter, placard, card, or label distributed in this State, or over any radio or television station located in this State or in any other way in this State similar or dissimilar to the foregoing, an advertisement, announcement, statement or representation of any kind to the public relating to the sale, offering for sale, purchase, use or lease of any real estate in a subdivision located outside the State of Illinois may be enjoined from such activity upon application for injunctive relief by the State's Attorney or Attorney General and shall also be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless such advertisement, announcement, statement or representation contains or is accompanied by a clear, concise statement of the proximity of such real estate in common units of measurement to public schools, public highways, fresh water supply, public sewers, electric power, stores and shops, and telephone service or contains a statement that one or more of such facilities are not readily available, and name those not available.
(d) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) do not apply to any medium for the printing, publishing, or disseminating of advertising, or any owner, agent or employee thereof, nor to any advertising agency or owner, agent or employee thereof, nor to any radio or television station, or owner, agent, or employee thereof, for printing, publishing, or disseminating, or causing to be printed, published, or disseminated, such advertisement in good faith and without knowledge of the deceptive character thereof.
(e) No person, firm or corporation owning or operating a service station shall advertise or hold out or state to the public the per gallon price of gasoline, upon any sign on the premises of such station, unless such price includes all taxes, and unless the price, as so advertised, corresponds with the price appearing on the pump from which such gasoline is dispensed. Also, the identity of the product must be included with the price in any such advertisement, holding out or statement to the public. Any person who violates this subsection (e) shall be guilty of a petty offense.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. FRAUD ON A GOVERNMENTAL ENTITY
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-6)
Sec. 17-6. State benefits fraud.
(a) A person commits State benefits fraud when he or she obtains or attempts to obtain money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof through the knowing use of false identification documents or through the knowing misrepresentation of his or her age, place of residence, number of dependents, marital or family status, employment status, financial status, or any other material fact upon which his eligibility for or degree of participation in any benefit program might be based.
(b) Notwithstanding any provision of State law to the contrary, every application or other document submitted to an agency or department of the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof to establish or determine eligibility for money or benefits from the State of Illinois or from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, shall be made available upon request to any law enforcement agency for use in the investigation or prosecution of State benefits fraud or for use in the investigation or prosecution of any other crime arising out of the same transaction or occurrence. Except as otherwise permitted by law, information disclosed pursuant to this subsection shall be used and disclosed only for the purposes provided herein. The provisions of this Section shall be operative only to the extent that they do not conflict with any federal law or regulation governing federal grants to this State.
(c) Any employee of the State of Illinois or any agency or political subdivision thereof may seize as evidence any false or fraudulent document presented to him or her in connection with an application for or receipt of money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof.
(d) Sentence.
(1) State benefits fraud is a Class 4 felony except when more than $300 is obtained, in which case State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony.
(2) If a person knowingly misrepresents oneself as a veteran or as a dependent of a veteran with the intent of obtaining benefits or privileges provided by the State or its political subdivisions to veterans or their dependents, then State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony when $300 or less is obtained and a Class 2 felony when more than $300 is obtained. For the purposes of this paragraph (2), benefits and privileges include, but are not limited to, those benefits and privileges available under the Veterans' Employment Act, the Viet Nam Veterans Compensation Act, the Prisoner of War Bonus Act, the War Bonus Extension Act, the Military Veterans Assistance Act, the Veterans' Employment Representative Act, the Veterans Preference Act, the Service Member's Employment Tenure Act, the Disabled Veterans Housing Act, the Under Age Veterans Benefits Act, the Survivors Compensation Act, the Children of Deceased Veterans Act, the Veterans Burial Places Act, the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, or any other loans, assistance in employment, monetary payments, or tax exemptions offered by the State or its political subdivisions for veterans or their dependents.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-6.3)
Sec. 17-6.3. WIC fraud.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, the Special Supplemental Food Program for Women, Infants and Children administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services shall be referred to as "WIC".
(b) A person commits WIC fraud if he or she knowingly (i) uses, acquires, possesses, or transfers WIC Food Instruments or authorizations to participate in WIC in any manner not authorized by law or the rules of the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services or (ii) uses, acquires, possesses, or transfers altered WIC Food Instruments or authorizations to participate in WIC.
(c) Administrative malfeasance.
(1) A person commits administrative malfeasance if he

or she knowingly or recklessly misappropriates, misuses, or unlawfully withholds or converts to his or her own use or to the use of another any public funds made available for WIC.

(2) An official or employee of the State or a unit of

local government who knowingly aids, abets, assists, or participates in a known violation of this Section is subject to disciplinary proceedings under the rules of the applicable State agency or unit of local government.

(d) Unauthorized possession of identification document. A person commits unauthorized possession of an identification document if he or she knowingly possesses, with intent to commit a misdemeanor or felony, another person's identification document issued by the Illinois Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services. For purposes of this Section, "identification document" includes, but is not limited to, an authorization to participate in WIC or a card or other document that identifies a person as being entitled to WIC benefits.
(e) Penalties.
(1) If an individual, firm, corporation, association,

agency, institution, or other legal entity is found by a court to have engaged in an act, practice, or course of conduct declared unlawful under subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section and:

(A) the total amount of money involved in the

violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is less than $150, the violation is a Class A misdemeanor; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony;

(B) the total amount of money involved in the

violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $150 or more but less than $1,000, the violation is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony;

(C) the total amount of money involved in the

violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $1,000 or more but less than $5,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony;

(D) the total amount of money involved in the

violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $5,000 or more but less than $10,000, the violation is a Class 2 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 1 felony; or

(E) the total amount of money involved in the

violation, including the monetary value of the WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is $10,000 or more, the violation is a Class 1 felony and the defendant shall be permanently ineligible to participate in WIC.

(2) A violation of subsection (d) is a Class 4 felony.
(3) The State's Attorney of the county in which the

violation of this Section occurred or the Attorney General shall bring actions arising under this Section in the name of the People of the State of Illinois.

(4) For purposes of determining the classification of

an offense under this subsection (e), all of the money received as a result of the unlawful act, practice, or course of conduct, including the value of any WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, shall be aggregated.

(f) Seizure and forfeiture of property.
(1) A person who commits a felony violation of this

Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(2) Property subject to forfeiture under this

subsection (f) may be seized by the Director of State Police or any local law enforcement agency upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. The Director or a local law enforcement agency may seize property under this subsection (f) without process under any of the following circumstances:

(A) If the seizure is incident to inspection

under an administrative inspection warrant.

(B) If the property subject to seizure has been

the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding under Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(C) If there is probable cause to believe that

the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety.

(D) If there is probable cause to believe that

the property is subject to forfeiture under this subsection (f) and Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable.

(E) In accordance with the Code of Criminal

Procedure of 1963.

(g) Future participation as WIC vendor. A person who has been convicted of a felony violation of this Section is prohibited from participating as a WIC vendor for a minimum period of 3 years following conviction and until the total amount of money involved in the violation, including the value of WIC Food Instruments and the value of commodities, is repaid to WIC. This prohibition shall extend to any person with management responsibility in a firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity that has been convicted of a violation of this Section and to an officer or person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-6.5)
Sec. 17-6.5. Persons under deportation order; ineligibility for benefits.
(a) An individual against whom a United States Immigration Judge has issued an order of deportation which has been affirmed by the Board of Immigration Review, as well as an individual who appeals such an order pending appeal, under paragraph 19 of Section 241(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act relating to persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies, shall be ineligible for the following benefits authorized by State law:
(1) The homestead exemptions and homestead

improvement exemption under Sections 15-170, 15-175, 15-176, and 15-180 of the Property Tax Code.

(2) Grants under the Senior Citizens and Disabled

Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(3) The double income tax exemption conferred upon

persons 65 years of age or older by Section 204 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(4) Grants provided by the Department on Aging.
(5) Reductions in vehicle registration fees under

Section 3-806.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(6) Free fishing and reduced fishing license fees

under Sections 20-5 and 20-40 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(7) Tuition free courses for senior citizens under

the Senior Citizen Courses Act.

(8) Any benefits under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
(b) If a person has been found by a court to have knowingly received benefits in violation of subsection (a) and:
(1) the total monetary value of the benefits

received is less than $150, the person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony;

(2) the total monetary value of the benefits

received is $150 or more but less than $1,000, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony;

(3) the total monetary value of the benefits

received is $1,000 or more but less than $5,000, the person is guilty of a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony;

(4) the total monetary value of the benefits

received is $5,000 or more but less than $10,000, the person is guilty of a Class 2 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 1 felony; or

(5) the total monetary value of the benefits

received is $10,000 or more, the person is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(c) For purposes of determining the classification of an offense under this Section, all of the monetary value of the benefits received as a result of the unlawful act, practice, or course of conduct may be accumulated.
(d) Any grants awarded to persons described in subsection (a) may be recovered by the State of Illinois in a civil action commenced by the Attorney General in the circuit court of Sangamon County or the State's Attorney of the county of residence of the person described in subsection (a).
(e) An individual described in subsection (a) who has been deported shall be restored to any benefits which that individual has been denied under State law pursuant to subsection (a) if (i) the Attorney General of the United States has issued an order cancelling deportation and has adjusted the status of the individual to that of an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States or (ii) the country to which the individual has been deported adjudicates or exonerates the individual in a judicial or administrative proceeding as not being guilty of the persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin, or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-7)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-60 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 17-7. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 83-808. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-8)
Sec. 17-8. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 84-418. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-8.3) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-22)
Sec. 17-8.3. False information on an application for employment with certain public or private agencies; use of false academic degree.
(a) It is unlawful for an applicant for employment with a public or private agency that provides State funded services to persons with mental illness or developmental disabilities to knowingly furnish false information regarding professional certification, licensing, criminal background, or employment history for the 5 years immediately preceding the date of application on an application for employment with the agency if the position of employment requires or provides opportunity for contact with persons with mental illness or developmental disabilities.
(b) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly use a false academic degree for the purpose of obtaining employment or admission to an institution of higher learning or admission to an advanced degree program at an institution of higher learning or for the purpose of obtaining a promotion or higher compensation in employment.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-8.5)
Sec. 17-8.5. Fraud on a governmental entity.
(a) Fraud on a governmental entity. A person commits fraud on a governmental entity when he or she knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of any governmental entity by the making of a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property or by causing a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property to be made against the governmental entity, intending to deprive the governmental entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property.
(b) Aggravated fraud on a governmental entity. A person commits aggravated fraud on a governmental entity when he or she commits fraud on a governmental entity 3 or more times within an 18-month period arising out of separate incidents or transactions.
(c) Conspiracy to commit fraud on a governmental entity. If aggravated fraud on a governmental entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code against a person, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.
(d) Organizer of an aggravated fraud on a governmental entity conspiracy. A person commits being an organizer of an aggravated fraud on a governmental entity conspiracy if aggravated fraud on a governmental entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code and the person occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy.
For the purposes of this Section, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 17-10.5 or subsection (a) of Section 17-8.5 of this Code need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.
Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of being an organizer of an aggravated fraud conspiracy and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.
(e) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value

of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value

of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value

of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation of subsection (a) in which the value

of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 1

felony, regardless of the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained.

(6) The offense of being an organizer of an

aggravated fraud conspiracy is a Class X felony.

(7) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a

person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of conspiracy to commit fraud and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(f) Civil damages for fraud on a governmental entity. A person who knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of a governmental entity by the making of a false claim of bodily injury or of damage to or loss or theft of property, intending to deprive the governmental entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property, shall be civilly liable to the governmental entity that paid the claim or against whom the claim was made or to the subrogee of the governmental entity in an amount equal to either 3 times the value of the property wrongfully obtained or, if property was not wrongfully obtained, twice the value of the property attempted to be obtained, whichever amount is greater, plus reasonable attorney's fees.
(g) Determination of property value. For the purposes of this Section, if the exact value of the property attempted to be obtained is either not alleged by the claimant or not otherwise specifically set, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both.
(h) Actions by State licensing agencies.
(1) All State licensing agencies, the Illinois State

Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall coordinate enforcement efforts relating to acts of fraud on a governmental entity.

(2) If a person who is licensed or registered under

the laws of the State of Illinois to engage in a business or profession is convicted of or pleads guilty to engaging in an act of fraud on a governmental entity, the Illinois State Police must forward to each State agency by which the person is licensed or registered a copy of the conviction or plea and all supporting evidence.

(3) Any agency that receives information under this

Section shall, not later than 6 months after the date on which it receives the information, publicly report the final action taken against the convicted person, including but not limited to the revocation or suspension of the license or any other disciplinary action taken.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "obtain", "obtains control", "deception", "property", and "permanent deprivation" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Article 15 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-9)
Sec. 17-9. Public aid wire and mail fraud.
(a) Whoever knowingly (i) makes or transmits any communication by means of telephone, wire, radio, or television or (ii) places any communication with the United States Postal Service, or with any private or other mail, package, or delivery service or system, such communication being made, transmitted, placed, or received within the State of Illinois, intending that such communication be made, transmitted, or delivered in furtherance of any plan, scheme, or design to obtain, unlawfully, any benefit or payment under the Illinois Public Aid Code, commits public aid wire and mail fraud.
(b) Whoever knowingly directs or causes any communication to be (i) made or transmitted by means of telephone, wire, radio, or television or (ii) placed with the United States Postal Service, or with any private or other mail, package, or delivery service or system, intending that such communication be made, transmitted, or delivered in furtherance of any plan, scheme, or design to obtain, unlawfully, any benefit or payment under the Illinois Public Aid Code, commits public aid wire and mail fraud.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-10)
Sec. 17-10. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 84-1438. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10.2) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-29)
Sec. 17-10.2. Businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; fraudulent contracts with governmental units.
(a) In this Section:
"Minority person" means a person who is any of the

following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having

origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the

original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having

origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican,

Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a

person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Female" means a person who is of the female gender.
"Person with a disability" means a person who is a

person qualifying as being disabled.

"Disabled" means a severe physical or mental

disability that: (1) results from: amputation, arthritis, autism, blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy, cystic fibrosis, deafness, head injury, heart disease, hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction, an intellectual disability, mental illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders, neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy, paraplegia, quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions, sickle cell anemia, specific learning disabilities, or end stage renal failure disease; and (2) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

"Minority owned business" means a business concern

that is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

"Female owned business" means a business concern that

is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

"Business owned by a person with a disability" means

a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

"Governmental unit" means the State, a unit of local

government, or school district.

(b) In addition to any other penalties imposed by law or by an ordinance or resolution of a unit of local government or school district, any individual or entity that knowingly obtains, or knowingly assists another to obtain, a contract with a governmental unit, or a subcontract or written commitment for a subcontract under a contract with a governmental unit, by falsely representing that the individual or entity, or the individual or entity assisted, is a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony, regardless of whether the preference for awarding the contract to a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability was established by statute or by local ordinance or resolution.
(c) In addition to any other penalties authorized by law, the court shall order that an individual or entity convicted of a violation of this Section must pay to the governmental unit that awarded the contract a penalty equal to one and one-half times the amount of the contract obtained because of the false representation.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10.3)
Sec. 17-10.3. Deception relating to certification of disadvantaged business enterprises.
(a) Fraudulently obtaining or retaining certification. A person who, in the course of business, fraudulently obtains or retains certification as a minority owned business, female owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.
(b) Willfully making a false statement. A person who, in the course of business, willfully makes a false statement whether by affidavit, report or other representation, to an official or employee of a State agency or the Minority and Female Business Enterprise Council for the purpose of influencing the certification or denial of certification of any business entity as a minority owned business, female owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.
(c) Willfully obstructing or impeding an official or employee of any agency in his or her investigation. Any person who, in the course of business, willfully obstructs or impedes an official or employee of any State agency or the Minority and Female Business Enterprise Council who is investigating the qualifications of a business entity which has requested certification as a minority owned business, female owned business, service-disabled veteran-owned small business, or veteran-owned small business commits a Class 2 felony.
(d) Fraudulently obtaining public moneys reserved for disadvantaged business enterprises. Any person who, in the course of business, fraudulently obtains public moneys reserved for, or allocated or available to, minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses, or veteran-owned small businesses commits a Class 2 felony.
(e) Definitions. As used in this Article, "minority owned business", "female owned business", "State agency" with respect to minority owned businesses and female owned businesses, and "certification" with respect to minority owned businesses and female owned businesses shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act. As used in this Article, "service-disabled veteran-owned small business", "veteran-owned small business", "State agency" with respect to service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses, and "certification" with respect to service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses have the same meanings as in Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-260, eff. 8-5-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 15 heading)

SUBDIVISION 15. FRAUD ON A PRIVATE ENTITY
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10.5)
Sec. 17-10.5. Insurance fraud.
(a) Insurance fraud.
(1) A person commits insurance fraud when he or she

knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of an insurance company or self-insured entity by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on any policy of insurance issued by an insurance company or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property.

(2) A person commits health care benefits fraud

against a provider, other than a governmental unit or agency, when he or she knowingly obtains or attempts to obtain, by deception, health care benefits and that obtaining or attempt to obtain health care benefits does not involve control over property of the provider.

(b) Aggravated insurance fraud.
(1) A person commits aggravated insurance fraud on a

private entity when he or she commits insurance fraud 3 or more times within an 18-month period arising out of separate incidents or transactions.

(2) A person commits being an organizer of an

aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity conspiracy if aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code and the person occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy.

(c) Conspiracy to commit insurance fraud. If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for charges of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.
If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, and the accused occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation as long as the accused occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.
(d) Sentence.
(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the

value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the

value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the

value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the

value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (a)(2) is a Class A

misdemeanor.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(1) is a Class 1

felony, regardless of the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(2) is a Class X

felony.

(8) A person convicted of insurance fraud, vendor

fraud, or a federal criminal violation associated with defrauding the Medicaid program shall be ordered to pay monetary restitution to the insurance company or self-insured entity or any other person for any financial loss sustained as a result of a violation of this Section, including any court costs and attorney's fees. An order of restitution shall include expenses incurred and paid by the State of Illinois or an insurance company or self-insured entity in connection with any medical evaluation or treatment services.

(9) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a

person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of conspiracy to commit insurance fraud or the offense of being an organizer of an aggravated insurance fraud conspiracy and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(e) Civil damages for insurance fraud.
(1) A person who knowingly obtains, attempts to

obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of any insurance company by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on a policy of insurance issued by an insurance company, or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property, shall be civilly liable to the insurance company or self-insured entity that paid the claim or against whom the claim was made or to the subrogee of that insurance company or self-insured entity in an amount equal to either 3 times the value of the property wrongfully obtained or, if no property was wrongfully obtained, twice the value of the property attempted to be obtained, whichever amount is greater, plus reasonable attorney's fees.

(2) An insurance company or self-insured entity that

brings an action against a person under paragraph (1) of this subsection in bad faith shall be liable to that person for twice the value of the property claimed, plus reasonable attorney's fees. In determining whether an insurance company or self-insured entity acted in bad faith, the court shall relax the rules of evidence to allow for the introduction of any facts or other information on which the insurance company or self-insured entity may have relied in bringing an action under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(f) Determination of property value. For the purposes of this Section, if the exact value of the property attempted to be obtained is either not alleged by the claimant or not specifically set by the terms of a policy of insurance, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both.
(g) Actions by State licensing agencies.
(1) All State licensing agencies, the Illinois State

Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall coordinate enforcement efforts relating to acts of insurance fraud.

(2) If a person who is licensed or registered under

the laws of the State of Illinois to engage in a business or profession is convicted of or pleads guilty to engaging in an act of insurance fraud, the Illinois State Police must forward to each State agency by which the person is licensed or registered a copy of the conviction or plea and all supporting evidence.

(3) Any agency that receives information under this

Section shall, not later than 6 months after the date on which it receives the information, publicly report the final action taken against the convicted person, including but not limited to the revocation or suspension of the license or any other disciplinary action taken.

(h) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "obtain", "obtains control", "deception", "property", and "permanent deprivation" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Article 15 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10.6)
Sec. 17-10.6. Financial institution fraud.
(a) Misappropriation of financial institution property. A person commits misappropriation of a financial institution's property whenever he or she knowingly obtains or exerts unauthorized control over any of the moneys, funds, credits, assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, or under the custody or care of any agent, officer, director, or employee of such financial institution.
(b) Commercial bribery of a financial institution.
(1) A person commits commercial bribery of a

financial institution when he or she knowingly confers or offers or agrees to confer any benefit upon any employee, agent, or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or principal, with the intent to influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(2) An employee, agent, or fiduciary of a financial

institution commits commercial bribery of a financial institution when, without the consent of his or her employer or principal, he or she knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(c) Financial institution fraud. A person commits financial institution fraud when he or she knowingly executes or attempts to execute a scheme or artifice:
(1) to defraud a financial institution; or
(2) to obtain any of the moneys, funds, credits,

assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, by means of pretenses, representations, or promises he or she knows to be false.

(d) Loan fraud. A person commits loan fraud when he or she knowingly, with intent to defraud, makes any false statement or report, or overvalues any land, property, or security, with the intent to influence in any way the action of a financial institution to act upon any application, advance, discount, purchase, purchase agreement, repurchase agreement, commitment, or loan, or any change or extension of any of the same, by renewal, deferment of action, or otherwise, or the acceptance, release, or substitution of security.
(e) Concealment of collateral. A person commits concealment of collateral when he or she, with intent to defraud, knowingly conceals, removes, disposes of, or converts to the person's own use or to that of another any property mortgaged or pledged to or held by a financial institution.
(f) Financial institution robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly, by force or threat of force, or by intimidation, takes, or attempts to take, from the person or presence of another, or obtains or attempts to obtain by extortion, any property or money or any other thing of value belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of, a financial institution.
(g) Conspiracy to commit a financial crime.
(1) A person commits conspiracy to commit a financial

crime when, with the intent that any violation of this Section be committed, he or she agrees with another person to the commission of that offense.

(2) No person may be convicted of conspiracy to

commit a financial crime unless an overt act or acts in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by that person or by a co-conspirator and the accused is a part of a common scheme or plan to engage in the unlawful activity.

(3) It shall not be a defense to conspiracy to commit

a financial crime that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(A) has not been prosecuted or convicted;
(B) has been convicted of a different offense;
(C) is not amenable to justice;
(D) has been acquitted; or
(E) lacked the capacity to commit the offense.
(h) Continuing financial crimes enterprise. A person commits a continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she knowingly, within an 18-month period, commits 3 or more separate offenses constituting any combination of the following:
(1) an offense under this Section;
(2) a felony offense in violation of Section 16A-3 or

subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(3) if involving a financial institution, any other

felony offense under this Code.

(i) Organizer of a continuing financial crimes enterprise.
(1) A person commits being an organizer of a

continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she:

(A) with the intent to commit any offense, agrees

with another person to the commission of any combination of the following offenses on 3 or more separate occasions within an 18-month period:

(i) an offense under this Section;
(ii) a felony offense in violation of Section

16A-3 or subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(iii) if involving a financial institution,

any other felony offense under this Code; and

(B) with respect to the other persons within the

conspiracy, occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, or financier or other position of management.

(2) The person with whom the accused agreed to commit

the 3 or more offenses under this Section, or, if involving a financial institution, any other felony offenses under this Code, need not be the same person or persons for each offense, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged offenses.

(j) Sentence.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection,

a violation of this Section, the full value of which:

(A) does not exceed $500, is a Class A

misdemeanor;

(B) does not exceed $500, and the person has been

previously convicted of a financial crime or any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion, is guilty of a Class 4 felony;

(C) exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000, is

a Class 3 felony;

(D) exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000,

is a Class 2 felony;

(E) exceeds $100,000 but does not exceed

$500,000, is a Class 1 felony;

(F) exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed

$1,000,000, is a Class 1 non-probationable felony; when a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $500,000;

(G) exceeds $1,000,000, is a Class X felony; when

a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $1,000,000.

(2) A violation of subsection (f) is a Class 1 felony.
(3) A violation of subsection (h) is a Class 1 felony.
(4) A violation for subsection (i) is a Class X

felony.

(k) A "financial crime" means an offense described in this Section.
(l) Period of limitations. The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the offense is committed.
(m) Forfeiture. Any violation of subdivision (2) of subsection (h) or subdivision (i)(1)(A)(ii) shall be subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in subsections (f) through (s) of Section 29B-1 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates P.A. 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-147, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-10.7)
Sec. 17-10.7. Insurance claims for excessive charges.
(a) A person who sells goods or services commits insurance claims for excessive charges if:
(1) the person knowingly advertises or promises to

provide the goods or services and to pay:

(A) all or part of any applicable insurance

deductible; or

(B) a rebate in an amount equal to all or part of

any applicable insurance deductible;

(2) the goods or services are paid for by the

consumer from proceeds of a property or casualty insurance policy; and

(3) the person knowingly charges an amount for the

goods or services that exceeds the usual and customary charge by the person for the goods or services by an amount equal to or greater than all or part of the applicable insurance deductible paid by the person to an insurer on behalf of an insured or remitted to an insured by the person as a rebate.

(b) A person who is insured under a property or casualty insurance policy commits insurance claims for excessive charges if the person knowingly:
(1) submits a claim under the policy based on charges

that are in violation of subsection (a) of this Section; or

(2) knowingly allows a claim in violation of

subsection (a) of this Section to be submitted, unless the person promptly notifies the insurer of the excessive charges.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 20 heading)

SUBDIVISION 20. FRAUDULENT TAMPERING
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-11)
Sec. 17-11. Odometer or hour meter fraud. A person commits odometer or hour meter fraud when he or she disconnects, resets, or alters, or causes to be disconnected, reset, or altered, the odometer of any used motor vehicle or the hour meter of any used farm implement to conceal or change the actual miles driven or hours of operation with the intent to defraud another. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony. This Section does not apply to legitimate practices of automotive or implement parts recyclers who recycle used odometers or hour meters for resale.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-11.1)
Sec. 17-11.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-626, eff. 8-9-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-11.2)
Sec. 17-11.2. Installation of object in lieu of air bag. A person commits installation of object in lieu of airbag when he or she, for consideration, knowingly installs or reinstalls in a vehicle any object in lieu of an air bag that was designed in accordance with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the vehicle as part of a vehicle inflatable restraint system. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-11.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/16-22)
Sec. 17-11.5. Tampering with a security, fire, or life safety system.
(a) A person commits tampering with a security, fire, or life safety system when he or she knowingly damages, sabotages, destroys, or causes a permanent or temporary malfunction in any physical or electronic security, fire, or life safety system or any component part of any of those systems including, but not limited to, card readers, magnetic stripe readers, Wiegand card readers, smart card readers, proximity card readers, digital keypads, keypad access controls, digital locks, electromagnetic locks, electric strikes, electronic exit hardware, exit alarm systems, delayed egress systems, biometric access control equipment, intrusion detection systems and sensors, burglar alarm systems, wireless burglar alarms, silent alarms, duress alarms, hold-up alarms, glass break detectors, motion detectors, seismic detectors, glass shock sensors, magnetic contacts, closed circuit television (CCTV), security cameras, digital cameras, dome cameras, covert cameras, spy cameras, hidden cameras, wireless cameras, network cameras, IP addressable cameras, CCTV camera lenses, video cassette recorders, CCTV monitors, CCTV consoles, CCTV housings and enclosures, CCTV pan-and-tilt devices, CCTV transmission and signal equipment, wireless video transmitters, wireless video receivers, radio frequency (RF) or microwave components, or both, infrared illuminators, video motion detectors, video recorders, time lapse CCTV recorders, digital video recorders (DVRs), digital image storage systems, video converters, video distribution amplifiers, video time-date generators, multiplexers, switchers, splitters, fire alarms, smoke alarm systems, smoke detectors, flame detectors, fire detection systems and sensors, fire sprinklers, fire suppression systems, fire extinguishing systems, public address systems, intercoms, emergency telephones, emergency call boxes, emergency pull stations, telephone entry systems, video entry equipment, annunciators, sirens, lights, sounders, control panels and components, and all associated computer hardware, computer software, control panels, wires, cables, connectors, electromechanical components, electronic modules, fiber optics, filters, passive components, and power sources including batteries and back-up power supplies.
(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-12)
Sec. 17-12. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-967, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-13)
Sec. 17-13. Fraud in transfers of real and personal property.
(a) Conditional sale; sale without consent of title holder. No person purchasing personal property under a conditional sales contract shall, during the existence of such conditional sales contract and before the conditions thereof have been fulfilled, knowingly sell, transfer, conceal, or in any manner dispose of such property, or cause or allow the same to be done, without the written consent of the holder of title.
(b) Acknowledgment of fraudulent conveyance. No officer authorized to take the proof and acknowledgment of a conveyance of real or personal property or other instrument shall knowingly certify that the conveyance or other instrument was duly proven or acknowledged by a party to the conveyance or other instrument when no such acknowledgment or proof was made, or was not made at the time it was certified to have been made, with intent to injure or defraud or to enable any other person to injure or defraud.
(c) Fraudulent land sales. No person, after once selling, bartering, or disposing of a tract or tracts of land or a town lot or lots, or executing a bond or agreement for the sale of lands or a town lot or lots, shall again knowingly and with intent to defraud sell, barter, or dispose of the same tract or tracts of land or town lot or lots, or any part of those tracts of land or town lot or lots, or knowingly and with intent to defraud execute a bond or agreement to sell, barter, or dispose of the same land or lot or lots, or any part of that land or lot or lots, to any other person for a valuable consideration.
(d) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-14)
Sec. 17-14. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-15)
Sec. 17-15. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-16)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-58 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 17-16. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-17)
Sec. 17-17. Fraud in stock transactions.
(a) No officer, director, or agent of a bank, railroad, or other corporation, nor any other person, shall knowingly, and with intent to defraud, issue, sell, transfer, assign, or pledge, or cause or procure to be issued, sold, transferred, assigned, or pledged, any false, fraudulent, or simulated certificate or other evidence of ownership of a share or shares of the capital stock of a bank, railroad, or other corporation.
(b) No officer, director, or agent of a bank, railroad, or other corporation shall knowingly sign, with intent to issue, sell, pledge, or cause to be issued, sold, or pledged, any false, fraudulent, or simulated certificate or other evidence of the ownership or transfer of a share or shares of the capital stock of that corporation, or an instrument purporting to be a certificate or other evidence of the ownership or transfer, the signing, issuing, selling, or pledging of which by the officer, director, or agent is not authorized by law.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-18)
Sec. 17-18. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-19)
Sec. 17-19. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-20)
Sec. 17-20. Obstructing gas, water, or electric current meters. A person commits obstructing gas, water, or electric current meters when he or she knowingly, and with intent to injure or defraud a company, body corporate, copartnership, or individual, injures, alters, obstructs, or prevents the action of a meter provided for the purpose of measuring and registering the quantity of gas, water, or electric current consumed by or at a burner, orifice, or place, or supplied to a lamp, motor, machine, or appliance, or causes, procures, or aids the injuring or altering of any such meter or the obstruction or prevention of its action, or makes or causes to be made with a gas pipe, water pipe, or electrical conductor any connection so as to conduct or supply illumination or inflammable gas, water, or electric current to any burner, orifice, lamp, motor, or other machine or appliance from which the gas, water, or electricity may be consumed or utilized without passing through or being registered by a meter or without the consent or acquiescence of the company, municipal corporation, body corporate, copartnership, or individual furnishing or transmitting the gas, water, or electric current through the gas pipe, water pipe, or electrical conductor. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-21)
Sec. 17-21. Obstructing service meters. A person commits obstructing service meters when he or she knowingly, and, with the intent to defraud, tampers with, alters, obstructs or prevents the action of a meter, register, or other counting device that is a part of a mechanical or electrical machine, equipment, or device that measures service, without the consent of the owner of the machine, equipment, or device. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-22)
(This Section renumbered as Section 17-8.3 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 17-22. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 90-390, eff. 1-1-98. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-23)
Sec. 17-23. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01. Repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-24)
Sec. 17-24. Mail fraud and wire fraud.
(a) Mail fraud. A person commits mail fraud when he or she:
(1) devises or intends to devise any scheme or

artifice to defraud, or to obtain money or property by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations, or promises, or to sell, dispose of, loan, exchange, alter, give away, distribute, supply, or furnish or procure for unlawful use any counterfeit obligation, security, or other article, or anything represented to be or intimated or held out to be such a counterfeit or spurious article; and

(2) with the intent to execute such scheme or

artifice or to attempt to do so, does any of the following:

(A) Places in any post office or authorized

depository for mail matter within this State any matter or thing to be delivered by the United States Postal Service, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(B) Deposits or causes to be deposited in this

State any matter or thing to be sent or delivered by mail or by private or commercial carrier, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(C) Takes or receives from mail or from a private

or commercial carrier any such matter or thing at the place at which it is directed to be delivered by the person to whom it is addressed.

(D) Knowingly causes any such matter or thing to

be delivered by mail or by private or commercial carrier, according to the direction on the matter or thing.

(b) Wire fraud. A person commits wire fraud when he or she:
(1) devises or intends to devise a scheme or artifice

to defraud or to obtain money or property by means of false pretenses, representations, or promises; and

(2) for the purpose of executing the scheme or

artifice, transmits or causes to be transmitted any writings, signals, pictures, sounds, or electronic or electric impulses by means of wire, radio, or television communications:

(A) from within this State; or
(B) so that the transmission is received by a

person within this State; or

(C) so that the transmission may be accessed by a

person within this State.

(c) Jurisdiction.
(1) Mail fraud using a government or private carrier

occurs in the county in which mail or other matter is deposited with the United States Postal Service or a private commercial carrier for delivery, if deposited with the United States Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier within this State, and the county in which a person within this State receives the mail or other matter from the United States Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier.

(2) Wire fraud occurs in the county from which a

transmission is sent, if the transmission is sent from within this State, the county in which a person within this State receives the transmission, and the county in which a person who is within this State is located when the person accesses a transmission.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.
The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the scheme or artifice is committed.
(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-25)
Sec. 17-25. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 92-818, eff. 8-21-02. Repealed by P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-26)
Sec. 17-26. Misconduct by a corporate official.
(a) A person commits misconduct by a corporate official when:
(1) being a director of a corporation, he or she

knowingly, with the intent to defraud, concurs in any vote or act of the directors of the corporation, or any of them, which has the purpose of:

(A) making a dividend except in the manner

provided by law;

(B) dividing, withdrawing or in any manner paying

any stockholder any part of the capital stock of the corporation except in the manner provided by law;

(C) discounting or receiving any note or other

evidence of debt in payment of an installment of capital stock actually called in and required to be paid, or with purpose of providing the means of making such payment;

(D) receiving or discounting any note or other

evidence of debt with the purpose of enabling any stockholder to withdraw any part of the money paid in by him or her on his or her stock; or

(E) applying any portion of the funds of such

corporation, directly or indirectly, to the purchase of shares of its own stock, except in the manner provided by law; or

(2) being a director or officer of a corporation, he

or she, with the intent to defraud:

(A) issues, participates in issuing, or concurs

in a vote to issue any increase of its capital stock beyond the amount of the capital stock thereof, duly authorized by or in pursuance of law;

(B) sells, or agrees to sell, or is directly

interested in the sale of any share of stock of such corporation, or in any agreement to sell such stock, unless at the time of the sale or agreement he or she is an actual owner of such share, provided that the foregoing shall not apply to a sale by or on behalf of an underwriter or dealer in connection with a bona fide public offering of shares of stock of such corporation;

(C) executes a scheme or attempts to execute a

scheme to obtain any share of stock of such corporation by means of false representation; or

(3) being a director or officer of a corporation, he

or she with the intent to defraud or evade a financial disclosure reporting requirement of this State or of Section 13(A) or 15(D) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U. S. C. 78M(A) or 78O(D):

(A) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or

accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to fail to file a financial disclosure report as required by State or federal law; or

(B) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or

accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to file a financial disclosure report, as required by State or federal law, that contains a material omission or misstatement of fact.

(b) Sentence. If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is $500,000 or more, the violation is a Class 2 felony. If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is less than $500,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-27)
Sec. 17-27. Fraud on creditors.
(a) Fraud in insolvency. A person commits fraud in insolvency when, knowing that proceedings have or are about to be instituted for the appointment of a receiver or other person entitled to administer property for the benefit of creditors, or that any other composition or liquidation for the benefit of creditors has been or is about to be made, he or she:
(1) destroys, removes, conceals, encumbers,

transfers, or otherwise deals with any property or obtains any substantial part of or interest in the debtor's estate with the intent to defeat or obstruct the claim of any creditor, or otherwise to obstruct the operation of any law relating to administration of property for the benefit of creditors;

(2) knowingly falsifies any writing or record

relating to the property; or

(3) knowingly misrepresents or refuses to disclose to

a receiver or other person entitled to administer property for the benefit of creditors, the existence, amount, or location of the property, or any other information which the actor could be legally required to furnish in relation to such administration.

Sentence. If the benefit derived from a violation of this subsection (a) is $500,000 or more, the violation is a Class 2 felony. If the benefit derived from a violation of this subsection (a) is less than $500,000, the violation is a Class 3 felony.
(b) Fraud in property transfer. A person commits fraud in property transfer when he or she transfers or conveys any interest in property with the intent to defraud, defeat, hinder, or delay his or her creditors. A violation of this subsection (b) is a business offense subject to a fine not to exceed $1,000.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-28)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-57 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 17-28. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 93-691, eff. 7-9-04. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-29)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 17-10.2 by P.A. 96-1551.)
Sec. 17-29. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12. Renumbered by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2)
Sec. 17-30. Defaced, altered, or removed manufacturer or owner identification number.
(a) Unlawful sale of household appliances. A person commits unlawful sale of household appliances when he or she knowingly, with the intent to defraud or deceive another, keeps for sale, within any commercial context, any household appliance with a missing, defaced, obliterated, or otherwise altered manufacturer's identification number.
(b) Construction equipment identification defacement. A person commits construction equipment identification defacement when he or she knowingly changes, alters, removes, mutilates, or obliterates a permanently affixed serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification, or other mark of identification attached to or stamped, inscribed, molded, or etched into a machine or other equipment, whether stationary or mobile or self-propelled, or a part of such machine or equipment, used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects.
The trier of fact may infer that the defendant has knowingly changed, altered, removed, or obliterated the serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification, if the defendant was in possession of any machine or other equipment or a part of such machine or equipment used in the construction, maintenance, or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such projects upon which any such serial number, product identification number, part number, component identification number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of identification has been changed, altered, removed, or obliterated.
(c) Defacement of manufacturer's serial number or identification mark. A person commits defacement of a manufacturer's serial number or identification mark when he or she knowingly removes, alters, defaces, covers, or destroys the manufacturer's serial number or any other manufacturer's number or distinguishing identification mark upon any machine or other article of merchandise, other than a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a firearm as defined in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, with the intent of concealing or destroying the identity of such machine or other article of merchandise.
(d) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is

a Class 4 felony if the value of the appliance or appliances exceeds $1,000 and a Class B misdemeanor if the value of the appliance or appliances is $1,000 or less.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is

a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is

a Class B misdemeanor.

(e) No liability shall be imposed upon any person for the unintentional failure to comply with subsection (a).
(f) Definitions. In this Section:
"Commercial context" means a continuing business enterprise conducted for profit by any person whose primary business is the wholesale or retail marketing of household appliances, or a significant portion of whose business or inventory consists of household appliances kept or sold on a wholesale or retail basis.
"Household appliance" means any gas or electric device or machine marketed for use as home entertainment or for facilitating or expediting household tasks or chores. The term shall include but not necessarily be limited to refrigerators, freezers, ranges, radios, television sets, vacuum cleaners, toasters, dishwashers, and other similar household items.
"Manufacturer's identification number" means any serial number or other similar numerical or alphabetical designation imprinted upon or attached to or placed, stamped, or otherwise imprinted upon or attached to a household appliance or item by the manufacturer for purposes of identifying a particular appliance or item individually or by lot number.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 25 heading)

SUBDIVISION 25. CREDIT AND DEBIT CARD FRAUD
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-31)
Sec. 17-31. False statement to procure credit or debit card. A person commits false statement to procure credit or debit card when he or she makes or causes to be made, either directly or indirectly, any false statement in writing, knowing it to be false and with the intent that it be relied on, respecting his or her identity, his or her address, or his or her employment, or that of any other person, firm, or corporation, with the intent to procure the issuance of a credit card or debit card. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-32)
Sec. 17-32. Possession of another's credit, debit, or identification card.
(a) Possession of another's identification card. A person commits possession of another's identification card when he or she, with the intent to defraud, possesses any check guarantee card or key card or identification card for cash dispensing machines without the authority of the account holder or financial institution.
(b) Possession of another's credit or debit card. A person commits possession of another's credit or debit card when he or she receives a credit card or debit card from the person, possession, custody, or control of another without the cardholder's consent or if he or she, with knowledge that it has been so acquired, receives the credit card or debit card with the intent to use it or to sell it, or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder. The trier of fact may infer that a person who has in his or her possession or under his or her control 2 or more such credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself has violated this Section.
(c) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is

a Class A misdemeanor. A person who, within any 12-month period, violates subsection (a) of this Section at the same time or consecutively with respect to 3 or more cards, each the property of different account holders, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted under subsection (a) of this Section, when the value of property so obtained, in a single transaction or in separate transactions within any 90-day period, exceeds $150 is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is

a Class 4 felony. A person who, in any 12-month period, violates subsection (b) of this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-33)
Sec. 17-33. Possession of lost or mislaid credit or debit card. A person who receives a credit card or debit card that he or she knows to have been lost or mislaid and who retains possession with intent to use it or to sell it or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
A person who, in a single transaction, violates this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to different cardholders other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-34)
Sec. 17-34. Sale of credit or debit card. A person other than the issuer who sells a credit card or debit card, without the consent of the issuer, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
A person who knowingly purchases a credit card or debit card from a person other than the issuer, without the consent of the issuer, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
A person who, in a single transaction, makes a sale or purchase prohibited by this Section with respect to 3 or more credit cards or debit cards each issued to a cardholder other than himself or herself is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-35)
Sec. 17-35. Use of credit or debit card as security for debt. A person who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, obtains control over a credit card or debit card as security for debt or transfers, conveys, or gives control over a credit card or debit card as security for debt is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-36)
Sec. 17-36. Use of counterfeited, forged, expired, revoked, or unissued credit or debit card. A person who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, (i) uses, with the intent to obtain an item or items of value, a credit card or debit card obtained or retained in violation of this Subdivision 25 or without the cardholder's consent, or a credit card or debit card which he or she knows is counterfeited, or forged, or expired, or revoked or (ii) obtains or attempts to obtain an item or items of value by representing without the consent of the cardholder that he or she is the holder of a specified card or by representing that he or she is the holder of a card and such card has not in fact been issued is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value of all items of value obtained or sought in violation of this Section does not exceed $300 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 3 felony if the value exceeds $300 in any 6-month period. The trier of fact may infer that knowledge of revocation has been received by a cardholder 4 days after it has been mailed to him or her at the address set forth on the credit card or debit card or at his or her last known address by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, and, if the address is more than 500 miles from the place of mailing, by air mail. The trier of fact may infer that notice was received 10 days after mailing by registered or certified mail if the address is located outside the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Canal Zone, and Canada.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-37)
Sec. 17-37. Use of credit or debit card with intent to defraud. A cardholder who uses a credit card or debit card issued to him or her, or allows another person to use a credit card or debit card issued to him or her, with intent to defraud the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the value of all items of value does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-38)
Sec. 17-38. Use of account number or code with intent to defraud; possession of record of charge forms.
(a) A person who, with intent to defraud either an issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, utilizes an account number or code or enters information on a record of charge form with the intent to obtain an item or items of value is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value of the item or items of value obtained does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 3 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.
(b) A person who, with intent to defraud either an issuer or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, possesses, without the consent of the issuer or purported issuer, record of charge forms bearing the printed impression of a credit card or debit card is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The trier of fact may infer intent to defraud from the possession of such record of charge forms by a person other than the issuer or a person authorized by the issuer to possess record of charge forms.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-39)
Sec. 17-39. Receipt of goods or services. A person who receives an item or items of value obtained in violation of this Subdivision 25, knowing that it was so obtained or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that it was so obtained, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the value of all items of value obtained does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-40)
Sec. 17-40. Signing another's card with intent to defraud. A person other than the cardholder or a person authorized by him or her who, with intent to defraud either the issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, signs a credit card or debit card is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-41)
Sec. 17-41. Altered or counterfeited card.
(a) A person commits an offense under this Section when he or she, with intent to defraud either a purported issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, commits an offense under this Section if he or she: (i) alters a credit card or debit card or a purported credit card or debit card, or possesses a credit card or debit card or a purported credit card or debit card with knowledge that the same has been altered; or (ii) counterfeits a purported credit card or debit card, or possesses a purported credit card or debit card with knowledge that the card has been counterfeited.
(b) Sentence. A violation of item (i) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of item (ii) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. The trier of fact may infer that possession of 2 or more credit cards or debit cards by a person other than the issuer in violation of subsection (a) is evidence that the person intended to defraud or that he or she knew the credit cards or debit cards to have been so altered or counterfeited.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-42)
Sec. 17-42. Possession of incomplete card. A person other than the cardholder possessing an incomplete credit card or debit card, with intent to complete it without the consent of the issuer or a person possessing, with knowledge of its character, machinery, plates, or any other contrivance designed to reproduce instruments purporting to be credit cards or debit cards of an issuer who has not consented to the preparation of such credit cards or debit cards is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The trier of fact may infer that a person other than the cardholder or issuer who possesses 2 or more incomplete credit cards or debit cards possesses those cards without the consent of the issuer.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-43)
Sec. 17-43. Prohibited deposits.
(a) A person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card or any person providing an item or items of value, or any other person, deposits into his or her account or any account, via an electronic fund transfer terminal, a check, draft, money order, or other such document, knowing such document to be false, fictitious, forged, altered, counterfeit, or not his or her lawful or legal property, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(b) A person who receives value as a result of a false, fictitious, forged, altered, or counterfeit check, draft, money order, or other such document having been deposited into an account via an electronic fund transfer terminal, knowing at the time of receipt of the value that the document so deposited was false, fictitious, forged, altered, counterfeit, or not his or her lawful or legal property, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-44)
Sec. 17-44. Fraudulent use of electronic transmission.
(a) A person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card, the cardholder, or any other person, intercepts, taps, or alters electronic information between an electronic fund transfer terminal and the issuer, or originates electronic information to an electronic fund transfer terminal or to the issuer, via any line, wire, or other means of electronic transmission, at any junction, terminal, or device, or at any location within the EFT System, with the intent to obtain value, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(b) Any person who, with intent to defraud the issuer of a credit card or debit card, the cardholder, or any other person, intercepts, taps, or alters electronic information between an electronic fund transfer terminal and the issuer, or originates electronic information to an electronic fund transfer terminal or to the issuer, via any line, wire, or other means of electronic transmission, at any junction, terminal, or device, or at any location within the EFT System, and thereby causes funds to be transferred from one account to any other account, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-45)
Sec. 17-45. Payment of charges without furnishing item of value.
(a) No person shall process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through a retail seller's account with a financial institution or through a retail seller's agreement with a financial institution, card issuer, or organization of financial institutions or card issuers if that retail seller did not furnish or agree to furnish the item or items of value that are the subject of the credit card charge.
(b) No retail seller shall permit any person to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through the retail seller's account with a financial institution or the retail seller's agreement with a financial institution, card issuer, or organization of financial institutions or card issuers if that retail seller did not furnish or agree to furnish the item or items of value that are the subject of the credit card charge.
(c) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to any of the following:
(1) A person who furnishes goods or services on the

business premises of a general merchandise retail seller and who processes, deposits, negotiates, or obtains payment of a credit card charge through that general merchandise retail seller's account or agreement.

(2) A general merchandise retail seller who permits a

person described in paragraph (1) to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through that general merchandise retail seller's account or agreement.

(3) A franchisee who furnishes the cardholder with an

item or items of value that are provided in whole or in part by the franchisor and who processes, deposits, negotiates, or obtains payment of a credit card charge through that franchisor's account or agreement.

(4) A franchisor who permits a franchisee described

in paragraph (3) to process, deposit, negotiate, or obtain payment of a credit card charge through that franchisor's account or agreement.

(5) The credit card issuer or a financial institution

or a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of the card issuer or a financial institution.

(6) A person who processes, deposits, negotiates, or

obtains payment of less than $500 of credit card charges in any one-year period through a retail seller's account or agreement. The person has the burden of producing evidence that the person transacted less than $500 in credit card charges during any one-year period.

(7) A telecommunications carrier that includes

charges of other parties in its billings to its subscribers and those other parties whose charges are included in the billings of the telecommunications carrier to its subscribers.

(d) A person injured by a violation of this Section may bring an action for the recovery of damages, equitable relief, and reasonable attorney's fees and costs.
(e) A person who violates this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $10,000 for each offense. Each occurrence in which a person processes, deposits, negotiates, or otherwise seeks to obtain payment of a credit card charge in violation of subsection (a) constitutes a separate offense.
(f) The penalties and remedies provided in this Section are in addition to any other remedies or penalties provided by law.
(g) As used in this Section:
"Franchisor" and "franchisee" have the same meanings as in Section 3 of the Franchise Disclosure Act of 1987.
"Retail seller" has the same meaning as in Section 2.4 of the Retail Installment Sales Act.
"Telecommunications carrier" has the same meaning as in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-46)
Sec. 17-46. Furnishing items of value with intent to defraud. A person who is authorized by an issuer to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of such person, who, with intent to defraud the issuer or the cardholder, furnishes money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card obtained or retained in violation of this Code or a credit card or debit card which he knows is counterfeited, or forged, or expired, or revoked is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, if the value furnished in violation of this Section does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if such value exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-47)
Sec. 17-47. Failure to furnish items of value. A person who is authorized by an issuer to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of such person, who, with intent to defraud the issuer or the cardholder, fails to furnish money, goods, property, services or anything else of value which he represents in writing to the issuer that he has furnished is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the difference between the value of all money, goods, property, services and anything else of value actually furnished and the value represented to the issuer to have been furnished does not exceed $150 in any 6-month period; and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if such difference exceeds $150 in any 6-month period.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-48)
Sec. 17-48. Repeat offenses. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent offense under this Subdivision 25 is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
For purposes of this Section, an offense is considered a second or subsequent offense if, prior to his or her conviction of the offense, the offender has at any time been convicted under this Subdivision 25, or under any prior Act, or under any law of the United States or of any state relating to credit card or debit card offenses.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-49)
Sec. 17-49. Severability. If any provision of this Subdivision 25 or its application to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this Subdivision 25 which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this Subdivision 25 are declared to be severable.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-49.5)
Sec. 17-49.5. Telephone Charge Fraud Act unaffected. Nothing contained in this Subdivision 25 shall be construed to repeal, amend, or otherwise affect the Telephone Charge Fraud Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 30 heading)

SUBDIVISION 30. COMPUTER FRAUD
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-50) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-5 and 5/16D-6)
Sec. 17-50. Computer fraud.
(a) A person commits computer fraud when he or she knowingly:
(1) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or

any part thereof, or a program or data, with the intent of devising or executing any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception;

(2) Obtains use of, damages, or destroys a computer

or any part thereof, or alters, deletes, or removes any program or data contained therein, in connection with any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception; or

(3) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or

any part thereof, or a program or data, and obtains money or control over any such money, property, or services of another in connection with any scheme or artifice to defraud, or as part of a deception.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of this Section

is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2) of this Section

is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of subdivision (a)(3) of this Section:
(i) is a Class 4 felony if the value of the

money, property, or services is $1,000 or less; or

(ii) is a Class 3 felony if the value of the

money, property, or services is more than $1,000 but less than $50,000; or

(iii) is a Class 2 felony if the value of the

money, property, or services is $50,000 or more.

(c) Forfeiture of property. Any person who commits computer fraud as set forth in subsection (a) is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-51) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-3)
Sec. 17-51. Computer tampering.
(a) A person commits computer tampering when he or she knowingly and without the authorization of a computer's owner or in excess of the authority granted to him or her:
(1) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or

any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data;

(2) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or

any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and obtains data or services;

(3) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or

any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and damages or destroys the computer or alters, deletes, or removes a computer program or data;

(4) Inserts or attempts to insert a program into a

computer or computer program knowing or having reason to know that such program contains information or commands that will or may:

(A) damage or destroy that computer, or any other

computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer;

(B) alter, delete, or remove a computer program

or data from that computer, or any other computer program or data in a computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer; or

(C) cause loss to the users of that computer or

the users of a computer which accesses or which is accessed by such program; or

(5) Falsifies or forges electronic mail transmission

information or other routing information in any manner in connection with the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail through or into the computer network of an electronic mail service provider or its subscribers.

(a-5) Distributing software to falsify routing information. It is unlawful for any person knowingly to sell, give, or otherwise distribute or possess with the intent to sell, give, or distribute software which:
(1) is primarily designed or produced for the purpose

of facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information;

(2) has only a limited commercially significant

purpose or use other than to facilitate or enable the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information; or

(3) is marketed by that person or another acting in

concert with that person with that person's knowledge for use in facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information.

(a-10) For purposes of subsection (a), accessing a computer network is deemed to be with the authorization of a computer's owner if:
(1) the owner authorizes patrons, customers, or

guests to access the computer network and the person accessing the computer network is an authorized patron, customer, or guest and complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner; or

(2) the owner authorizes the public to access the

computer network and the person accessing the computer network complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A person who commits computer tampering as set

forth in subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(5) or subsection (a-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(2) A person who commits computer tampering as set

forth in subdivision (a)(2) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and a Class 4 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(3) A person who commits computer tampering as set

forth in subdivision (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and a Class 3 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(4) If an injury arises from the transmission of

unsolicited bulk electronic mail, the injured person, other than an electronic mail service provider, may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the lesser of $10 for each unsolicited bulk electronic mail message transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day. The injured person shall not have a cause of action against the electronic mail service provider that merely transmits the unsolicited bulk electronic mail over its computer network.

(5) If an injury arises from the transmission of

unsolicited bulk electronic mail, an injured electronic mail service provider may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the greater of $10 for each unsolicited electronic mail advertisement transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day.

(6) The provisions of this Section shall not be

construed to limit any person's right to pursue any additional civil remedy otherwise allowed by law.

(c) Whoever suffers loss by reason of a violation of subdivision (a)(4) of this Section may, in a civil action against the violator, obtain appropriate relief. In a civil action under this Section, the court may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and other litigation expenses.
(Source: P.A. 95-326, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-52) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-4)
Sec. 17-52. Aggravated computer tampering.
(a) A person commits aggravated computer tampering when he or she commits computer tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 17-51 and he or she knowingly:
(1) causes disruption of or interference with vital

services or operations of State or local government or a public utility; or

(2) creates a strong probability of death or great

bodily harm to one or more individuals.

(b) Sentence.
(1) A person who commits aggravated computer

tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who commits aggravated computer

tampering as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-52.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-5.5)
Sec. 17-52.5. Unlawful use of encryption.
(a) For the purpose of this Section:
"Computer" means an electronic device which performs

logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulations of electronic or magnetic impulses and includes all equipment related to the computer in a system or network.

"Computer contaminant" means any data, information,

image, program, signal, or sound that is designated or has the capability to: (1) contaminate, corrupt, consume, damage, destroy, disrupt, modify, record, or transmit; or (2) cause to be contaminated, corrupted, consumed, damaged, destroyed, disrupted, modified, recorded, or transmitted, any other data, information, image, program, signal, or sound contained in a computer, system, or network without the knowledge or consent of the person who owns the other data, information, image, program, signal, or sound or the computer, system, or network.

"Computer contaminant" includes, without limitation:

(1) a virus, worm, or Trojan horse; (2) spyware that tracks computer activity and is capable of recording and transmitting such information to third parties; or (3) any other similar data, information, image, program, signal, or sound that is designed or has the capability to prevent, impede, delay, or disrupt the normal operation or use of any component, device, equipment, system, or network.

"Encryption" means the use of any protective or

disruptive measure, including, without limitation, cryptography, enciphering, encoding, or a computer contaminant, to: (1) prevent, impede, delay, or disrupt access to any data, information, image, program, signal, or sound; (2) cause or make any data, information, image, program, signal, or sound unintelligible or unusable; or (3) prevent, impede, delay, or disrupt the normal operation or use of any component, device, equipment, system, or network.

"Network" means a set of related, remotely connected

devices and facilities, including more than one system, with the capability to transmit data among any of the devices and facilities. The term includes, without limitation, a local, regional, or global computer network.

"Program" means an ordered set of data representing

coded instructions or statements which can be executed by a computer and cause the computer to perform one or more tasks.

"System" means a set of related equipment, whether or

not connected, which is used with or for a computer.

(b) A person shall not knowingly use or attempt to use encryption, directly or indirectly, to:
(1) commit, facilitate, further, or promote any

criminal offense;

(2) aid, assist, or encourage another person to

commit any criminal offense;

(3) conceal evidence of the commission of any

criminal offense; or

(4) conceal or protect the identity of a person who

has committed any criminal offense.

(c) Telecommunications carriers and information service providers are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, for providing encryption services used by others in violation of this Section.
(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the encryption was used or attempted to be used to commit an offense for which a greater penalty is provided by law. If the encryption was used or attempted to be used to commit an offense for which a greater penalty is provided by law, the person shall be punished as prescribed by law for that offense.
(e) A person who violates this Section commits a criminal offense that is separate and distinct from any other criminal offense and may be prosecuted and convicted under this Section whether or not the person or any other person is or has been prosecuted or convicted for any other criminal offense arising out of the same facts as the violation of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 95-942, eff. 1-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-54) (was 720 ILCS 5/16D-7)
Sec. 17-54. Evidence of lack of authority. For the purposes of Sections 17-50 through 17-52, the trier of fact may infer that a person accessed a computer without the authorization of its owner or in excess of the authority granted if the person accesses or causes to be accessed a computer, which access requires a confidential or proprietary code which has not been issued to or authorized for use by that person.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-55)
Sec. 17-55. Definitions. For the purposes of Sections 17-50 through 17-53:
In addition to its meaning as defined in Section 15-1 of this Code, "property" means: (1) electronic impulses; (2) electronically produced data; (3) confidential, copyrighted, or proprietary information; (4) private identification codes or numbers which permit access to a computer by authorized computer users or generate billings to consumers for purchase of goods and services, including but not limited to credit card transactions and telecommunications services or permit electronic fund transfers; (5) software or programs in either machine or human readable form; or (6) any other tangible or intangible item relating to a computer or any part thereof.
"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of, a computer, a network, or data.
"Services" includes but is not limited to computer time, data manipulation, or storage functions.
"Vital services or operations" means those services or operations required to provide, operate, maintain, and repair network cabling, transmission, distribution, or computer facilities necessary to ensure or protect the public health, safety, or welfare. Those services or operations include, but are not limited to, services provided by medical personnel or institutions, fire departments, emergency services agencies, national defense contractors, armed forces or militia personnel, private and public utility companies, or law enforcement agencies.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17, Subdiv. 35 heading)

SUBDIVISION 35. MISCELLANEOUS SPECIAL FRAUD
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-56) (was 720 ILCS 5/16-1.3)
Sec. 17-56. Financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability.
(a) A person commits financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability when he or she stands in a position of trust or confidence with the elderly person or a person with a disability and he or she knowingly and by deception or intimidation obtains control over the property of an elderly person or a person with a disability or illegally uses the assets or resources of an elderly person or a person with a disability.
(b) Sentence. Financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability is: (1) a Class 4 felony if the value of the property is $300 or less, (2) a Class 3 felony if the value of the property is more than $300 but less than $5,000, (3) a Class 2 felony if the value of the property is $5,000 or more but less than $50,000, and (4) a Class 1 felony if the value of the property is $50,000 or more or if the elderly person is over 70 years of age and the value of the property is $15,000 or more or if the elderly person is 80 years of age or older and the value of the property is $5,000 or more.
(c) For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age

or older.

(2) "Person with a disability" means a person who

suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.

(3) "Intimidation" means the communication to an

elderly person or a person with a disability that he or she shall be deprived of food and nutrition, shelter, prescribed medication or medical care and treatment or conduct as provided in Section 12-6 of this Code.

(4) "Deception" means, in addition to its meaning as

defined in Section 15-4 of this Code, a misrepresentation or concealment of material fact relating to the terms of a contract or agreement entered into with the elderly person or person with a disability or to the existing or pre-existing condition of any of the property involved in such contract or agreement; or the use or employment of any misrepresentation, false pretense or false promise in order to induce, encourage or solicit the elderly person or person with a disability to enter into a contract or agreement.

The illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or a person with a disability includes, but is not limited to, the misappropriation of those assets or resources by undue influence, breach of a fiduciary relationship, fraud, deception, extortion, or use of the assets or resources contrary to law.
A person stands in a position of trust and confidence with an elderly person or person with a disability when he (i) is a parent, spouse, adult child or other relative by blood or marriage of the elderly person or person with a disability, (ii) is a joint tenant or tenant in common with the elderly person or person with a disability, (iii) has a legal or fiduciary relationship with the elderly person or person with a disability, (iv) is a financial planning or investment professional, or (v) is a paid or unpaid caregiver for the elderly person or person with a disability.
(d) Limitations. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
(e) Good faith efforts. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose criminal liability on a person who has made a good faith effort to assist the elderly person or person with a disability in the management of his or her property, but through no fault of his or her own has been unable to provide such assistance.
(f) Not a defense. It shall not be a defense to financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability that the accused reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability.
(g) Civil Liability. A person who is charged by information or indictment with the offense of financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability and who fails or refuses to return the victim's property within 60 days following a written demand from the victim or the victim's legal representative shall be liable to the victim or to the estate of the victim in damages of treble the amount of the value of the property obtained, plus reasonable attorney fees and court costs. The burden of proof that the defendant unlawfully obtained the victim's property shall be by a preponderance of the evidence. This subsection shall be operative whether or not the defendant has been convicted of the offense.
(h) If a person is charged with financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability that involves the taking or loss of property valued at more than $5,000, a prosecuting attorney may file a petition with the circuit court of the county in which the defendant has been charged to freeze the assets of the defendant in an amount equal to but not greater than the alleged value of lost or stolen property in the defendant's pending criminal proceeding for purposes of restitution to the victim. The burden of proof required to freeze the defendant's assets shall be by a preponderance of the evidence.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-482, eff. 1-1-12; 97-865, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-57) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-28)
Sec. 17-57. Defrauding drug and alcohol screening tests.
(a) It is unlawful for a person to:
(1) manufacture, sell, give away, distribute, or

market synthetic or human substances or other products in this State or transport urine into this State with the intent of using the synthetic or human substances or other products to defraud a drug or alcohol screening test;

(2) substitute or spike a sample or advertise a

sample substitution or other spiking device or measure, with the intent of attempting to foil or defeat a drug or alcohol screening test;

(3) adulterate synthetic or human substances with the

intent to defraud a drug or alcohol screening test; or

(4) manufacture, sell, or possess adulterants that

are intended to be used to adulterate synthetic or human substances with the intent of defrauding a drug or alcohol screening test.

(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to violate this Section if a heating element or any other device used to thwart a drug or alcohol screening test accompanies the sale, giving, distribution, or marketing of synthetic or human substances or other products or instructions that provide a method for thwarting a drug or alcohol screening test accompany the sale, giving, distribution, or marketing of synthetic or human substances or other products.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony for which the court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000.
(d) For the purposes of this Section, "drug or alcohol screening test" includes, but is not limited to, urine testing, hair follicle testing, perspiration testing, saliva testing, blood testing, fingernail testing, and eye drug testing.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-58) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-16)
Sec. 17-58. Fraudulent production of infant. A person who fraudulently produces an infant, falsely pretending it to have been born of parents whose child would be entitled to a share of a personal estate, or to inherit real estate, with the intent of intercepting the inheritance of the real estate, or the distribution of the personal property from a person lawfully entitled to the personal property, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-59) (was 720 ILCS 5/39-1)
Sec. 17-59. Criminal usury.
(a) A person commits criminal usury when, in exchange for either a loan of money or other property or forbearance from the collection of such a loan, he or she knowingly contracts for or receives from an individual, directly or indirectly, interest, discount, or other consideration at a rate greater than 20% per annum either before or after the maturity of the loan.
(b) When a person has in his or her personal or constructive possession records, memoranda, or other documentary record of usurious loans, the trier of fact may infer that he or she has violated subsection (a) of this Section.
(c) Sentence. Criminal usury is a Class 4 felony.
(d) Non-application to licensed persons. This Section does not apply to any loan authorized to be made by any person licensed under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or to any loan permitted by Sections 4, 4.2 and 4a of the Interest Act or by any other law of this State.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-60) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-7)
Sec. 17-60. Promotion of pyramid sales schemes.
(a) A person who knowingly sells, offers to sell, or attempts to sell the right to participate in a pyramid sales scheme commits a Class A misdemeanor.
(b) The term "pyramid sales scheme" means any plan or operation whereby a person, in exchange for money or other thing of value, acquires the opportunity to receive a benefit or thing of value, which is primarily based upon the inducement of additional persons, by himself or others, regardless of number, to participate in the same plan or operation and is not primarily contingent on the volume or quantity of goods, services, or other property sold or distributed or to be sold or distributed to persons for purposes of resale to consumers. For purposes of this subsection, "money or other thing of value" shall not include payments made for sales demonstration equipment and materials furnished on a nonprofit basis for use in making sales and not for resale.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-61)
Sec. 17-61. Unauthorized use of university stationery.
(a) No person, firm or corporation shall use the official stationery or seal or a facsimile thereof, of any State supported university, college or other institution of higher education or any organization thereof unless approved in writing in advance by the university, college or institution of higher education affected, for any private promotional scheme wherein it is made to appear that the organization or university, college or other institution of higher education is endorsing the private promotional scheme.
(b) A violation of this Section is a petty offense.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/17-62)
Sec. 17-62. Unlawful possession of device for manufacturing a false universal price code label. It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess a device the purpose of which is to manufacture a false, counterfeit, altered, or simulated universal price code label. A violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17A heading)

ARTICLE 17A. DISQUALIFICATION FOR STATE BENEFITS
(Repealed)
(Article repealed by P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17B heading)

ARTICLE 17B. WIC FRAUD
(Source: Repealed by P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 18 heading)

ARTICLE 18. ROBBERY


(720 ILCS 5/18-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-1)
Sec. 18-1. Robbery; aggravated robbery.
(a) Robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly takes property, except a motor vehicle covered by Section 18-3 or 18-4, from the person or presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.
(b) Aggravated robbery.
(1) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or

she violates subsection (a) while indicating verbally or by his or her actions to the victim that he or she is presently armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon. This offense shall be applicable even though it is later determined that he or she had no firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon, in his or her possession when he or she committed the robbery.

(2) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or

she knowingly takes property from the person or presence of another by delivering (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any controlled substance.

(c) Sentence.
Robbery is a Class 2 felony, unless the victim is 60 years of age or over or is a physically handicapped person, or the robbery is committed in a school, day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship, in which case robbery is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated robbery is a Class 1 felony.
(d) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (c) for violations committed in a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.
(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/18-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-2)
Sec. 18-2. Armed robbery.
(a) A person commits armed robbery when he or she violates Section 18-1; and
(1) he or she carries on or about his or her person

or is otherwise armed with a dangerous weapon other than a firearm; or

(2) he or she carries on or about his or her person

or is otherwise armed with a firearm; or

(3) he or she, during the commission of the offense,

personally discharges a firearm; or

(4) he or she, during the commission of the offense,

personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) Sentence.
Armed robbery in violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.
(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00.)


(720 ILCS 5/18-3)
Sec. 18-3. Vehicular hijacking.
(a) A person commits vehicular hijacking when he or she knowingly takes a motor vehicle from the person or the immediate presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.
(b) Sentence. Vehicular hijacking is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/18-4)
Sec. 18-4. Aggravated vehicular hijacking.
(a) A person commits aggravated vehicular hijacking when he or she violates Section 18-3; and
(1) the person from whose immediate presence the

motor vehicle is taken is a physically handicapped person or a person 60 years of age or over; or

(2) a person under 16 years of age is a passenger in

the motor vehicle at the time of the offense; or

(3) he or she carries on or about his or her person,

or is otherwise armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm; or

(4) he or she carries on or about his or her person

or is otherwise armed with a firearm; or

(5) he or she, during the commission of the offense,

personally discharges a firearm; or

(6) he or she, during the commission of the offense,

personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated vehicular hijacking in violation of subsections (a)(1) or (a)(2) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years shall be imposed. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/18-5)
Sec. 18-5. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/18-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-11.1)
Sec. 18-6. Vehicular invasion.
(a) A person commits vehicular invasion when he or she knowingly, by force and without lawful justification, enters or reaches into the interior of a motor vehicle while the motor vehicle is occupied by another person or persons, with the intent to commit therein a theft or felony.
(b) Sentence. Vehicular invasion is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 19 heading)

ARTICLE 19. BURGLARY


(720 ILCS 5/19-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-1)
Sec. 19-1. Burglary.
(a) A person commits burglary when without authority he or she knowingly enters or without authority remains within a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, or any part thereof, with intent to commit therein a felony or theft. This offense shall not include the offenses set out in Section 4-102 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(b) Sentence.
Burglary is a Class 2 felony. A burglary committed in a school, day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship is a Class 1 felony, except that this provision does not apply to a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility operated in a private residence used as a dwelling.
(c) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (b) for violations committed in a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.
(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-2)
Sec. 19-2. Possession of burglary tools.
(a) A person commits possession of burglary tools when he or she possesses any key, tool, instrument, device, or any explosive, suitable for use in breaking into a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, or any depository designed for the safekeeping of property, or any part thereof, with intent to enter that place and with intent to commit therein a felony or theft. The trier of fact may infer from the possession of a key designed for lock bumping an intent to commit a felony or theft; however, this inference does not apply to any peace officer or other employee of a law enforcement agency, or to any person or agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. For the purposes of this Section, "lock bumping" means a lock picking technique for opening a pin tumbler lock using a specially-crafted bumpkey.
(b) Sentence.
Possession of burglary tools is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-2.5)
Sec. 19-2.5. Unlawful sale of burglary tools.
(a) For the purposes of this Section:
"Lock bumping" means a lock picking technique for

opening a pin tumbler lock using a specially-crafted bumpkey.

"Motor vehicle" has the meaning ascribed to it in the

Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale of burglary tools when he or she knowingly sells or transfers any key, including a key designed for lock bumping, or a lock pick specifically manufactured or altered for use in breaking into a building, housetrailer, watercraft, aircraft, motor vehicle, railroad car, or any depository designed for the safekeeping of property, or any part of that property.
(c) This Section does not apply to the sale or transfer of any item described in subsection (b) to any peace officer or other employee of a law enforcement agency, or to any person or agency licensed as a locksmith under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, or to any person engaged in the business of towing vehicles, or to any person engaged in the business of lawful repossession of property who possesses a valid Repossessor-ICC Authorization Card.
(d) Sentence. Unlawful sale of burglary tools is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1307, eff. 1-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-3)
Sec. 19-3. Residential burglary.
(a) A person commits residential burglary when he or she knowingly and without authority enters or knowingly and without authority remains within the dwelling place of another, or any part thereof, with the intent to commit therein a felony or theft. This offense includes the offense of burglary as defined in Section 19-1.
(a-5) A person commits residential burglary when he or she falsely represents himself or herself, including but not limited to falsely representing himself or herself to be a representative of any unit of government or a construction, telecommunications, or utility company, for the purpose of gaining entry to the dwelling place of another, with the intent to commit therein a felony or theft or to facilitate the commission therein of a felony or theft by another.
(b) Sentence. Residential burglary is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-4)
Sec. 19-4. Criminal trespass to a residence.
(a) (1) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters or remains within any residence, including a house trailer that is the dwelling place of another.
(2) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and remains in the residence after he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present.
(a-5) For purposes of this Section, in the case of a multi-unit residential building or complex, "residence" shall only include the portion of the building or complex which is the actual dwelling place of any person and shall not include such places as common recreational areas or lobbies.
(b) Sentence.
(1) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph

(1) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph

(2) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-5)
Sec. 19-5. Criminal fortification of a residence or building.
(a) A person commits criminal fortification of a residence or building when, with the intent to prevent the lawful entry of a law enforcement officer or another, he or she maintains a residence or building in a fortified condition, knowing that the residence or building is used for the unlawful manufacture, storage with intent to deliver or manufacture, delivery, or trafficking of cannabis, controlled substances, or methamphetamine as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.
(b) "Fortified condition" means preventing or impeding entry through the use of steel doors, wooden planking, crossbars, alarm systems, dogs, video surveillance, motion sensing devices, booby traps, or other similar means. If video surveillance is the sole component of the fortified condition, the video surveillance must be with the intent to alert an occupant to the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of interfering with the official duties of a law enforcement officer, allowing removal or destruction of evidence, or facilitating the infliction of harm to a law enforcement officer. For the purposes of this Section, "booby trap" means any device, including but not limited to any explosive device, designed to cause physical injury or the destruction of evidence, when triggered by an act of a person approaching, entering, or moving through a structure.
(c) Sentence. Criminal fortification of a residence or building is a Class 3 felony.
(d) This Section does not apply to the fortification of a residence or building used in the manufacture of methamphetamine as described in Sections 10 and 15 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-897, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/19-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-11)
Sec. 19-6. Home Invasion.
(a) A person who is not a peace officer acting in the line of duty commits home invasion when without authority he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or who falsely represents himself or herself, including but not limited to, falsely representing himself or herself to be a representative of any unit of government or a construction, telecommunications, or utility company, for the purpose of gaining entry to the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons are present and
(1) While armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a

firearm, uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(2) Intentionally causes any injury, except as

provided in subsection (a)(5), to any person or persons within the dwelling place, or

(3) While armed with a firearm uses force or

threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(4) Uses force or threatens the imminent use of force

upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs and during the commission of the offense personally discharges a firearm, or

(5) Personally discharges a firearm that proximately

causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person within the dwelling place, or

(6) Commits, against any person or persons within

that dwelling place, a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of home invasion that the accused who knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present either immediately leaves the premises or surrenders to the person or persons lawfully present therein without either attempting to cause or causing serious bodily injury to any person present therein.
(c) Sentence. Home invasion in violation of subsection (a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(6) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.
(d) For purposes of this Section, "dwelling place of another" includes a dwelling place where the defendant maintains a tenancy interest but from which the defendant has been barred by a divorce decree, judgment of dissolution of marriage, order of protection, or other court order.
(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 20 heading)

ARTICLE 20. ARSON


(720 ILCS 5/20-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-1)
Sec. 20-1. Arson; residential arson; place of worship arson.
(a) A person commits arson when, by means of fire or explosive, he or she knowingly:
(1) Damages any real property, or any personal

property having a value of $150 or more, of another without his or her consent; or

(2) With intent to defraud an insurer, damages any

property or any personal property having a value of $150 or more.

Property "of another" means a building or other property, whether real or personal, in which a person other than the offender has an interest which the offender has no authority to defeat or impair, even though the offender may also have an interest in the building or property.
(b) A person commits residential arson when he or she, in the course of committing arson, knowingly damages, partially or totally, any building or structure that is the dwelling place of another.
(b-5) A person commits place of worship arson when he or she, in the course of committing arson, knowingly damages, partially or totally, any place of worship.
(c) Sentence.
Arson is a Class 2 felony. Residential arson or place of worship arson is a Class 1 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-1.1)
Sec. 20-1.1. Aggravated Arson.
(a) A person commits aggravated arson when in the course of committing arson he or she knowingly damages, partially or totally, any building or structure, including any adjacent building or structure, including all or any part of a school building, house trailer, watercraft, motor vehicle, or railroad car, and (1) he knows or reasonably should know that one or more persons are present therein or (2) any person suffers great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement as a result of the fire or explosion or (3) a fireman, policeman, or correctional officer who is present at the scene acting in the line of duty is injured as a result of the fire or explosion. For purposes of this Section, property "of another" means a building or other property, whether real or personal, in which a person other than the offender has an interest that the offender has no authority to defeat or impair, even though the offender may also have an interest in the building or property; and "school building" means any public or private preschool, elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.
(b) Sentence. Aggravated arson is a Class X felony.
(Source: P.A. 93-335, eff. 7-24-03; 94-127, eff. 7-7-05; 94-393, eff. 8-1-05.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-1.2)
Sec. 20-1.2. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 90-787, eff. 8-14-98. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-1.3)
Sec. 20-1.3. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-169, eff. 7-10-03. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-1.4)
Sec. 20-1.4. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-969, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-2005.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-1.5)
Sec. 20-1.5. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-969, eff. 1-1-05. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-2005.)


(720 ILCS 5/20-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 20-2)
Sec. 20-2. Possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices.
(a) A person commits possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices in violation of this Section when he or she possesses, manufactures or transports any explosive compound, timing or detonating device for use with any explosive compound or incendiary device and either intends to use the explosive or device to commit any offense or knows that another intends to use the explosive or device to commit a felony.
(b) Sentence.
Possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices is a Class 1 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 30 years.
(c) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 20.5 heading)

ARTICLE 20.5. CAUSING A CATASTROPHE; DEADLY SUBSTANCES


(720 ILCS 5/20.5-5)
Sec. 20.5-5. (Renumbered).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/20.5-6)
Sec. 20.5-6. (Renumbered).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21 heading)

ARTICLE 21. DAMAGE AND TRESPASS TO PROPERTY




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 1 heading)

SUBDIVISION 1. DAMAGE TO PROPERTY
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1)
Sec. 21-1. Criminal damage to property.
(a) A person commits criminal damage to property when he or she:
(1) knowingly damages any property of another;
(2) recklessly by means of fire or explosive damages

property of another;

(3) knowingly starts a fire on the land of another;
(4) knowingly injures a domestic animal of another

without his or her consent;

(5) knowingly deposits on the land or in the building

of another any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building;

(6) knowingly damages any property, other than as

described in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 20-1, with intent to defraud an insurer;

(7) knowingly shoots a firearm at any portion of a

railroad train;

(8) knowingly, without proper authorization, cuts,

injures, damages, defaces, destroys, or tampers with any fire hydrant or any public or private fire fighting equipment, or any apparatus appertaining to fire fighting equipment; or

(9) intentionally, without proper authorization,

opens any fire hydrant.

(b) When the charge of criminal damage to property exceeding a specified value is brought, the extent of the damage is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.
(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of paragraph (1), (3), or (5) of subsection (a) of this Section that the owner of the property or land damaged consented to the damage.
(d) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a) shall have the

following penalties:

(A) A violation of paragraph (8) or (9) is a

Class B misdemeanor.

(B) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5),

or (6) is a Class A misdemeanor when the damage to property does not exceed $300.

(C) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3),

(5), or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(D) A violation of paragraph (4) is a Class 4

felony when the damage to property does not exceed $10,000.

(E) A violation of paragraph (7) is a Class 4

felony.

(F) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5)

or (6) is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property exceeds $300 but does not exceed $10,000.

(G) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6)

is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $300 but does not exceed $10,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(H) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6)

is a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000.

(I) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6)

is a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(J) A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is

a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. A violation of paragraphs (1) through (6) is a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000 and the damage occurs to property of a school or place of worship or to farm equipment or immovable items of agricultural production, including but not limited to grain elevators, grain bins, and barns or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces, National Guard, or veterans.

(2) When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the

court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be

imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal damage to property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

The community service requirement does not apply when

the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(4) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed

for a violation of this Section, if a person is convicted of or placed on supervision for knowingly damaging or destroying crops of another, including crops intended for personal, commercial, research, or developmental purposes, the person is liable in a civil action to the owner of any crops damaged or destroyed for money damages up to twice the market value of the crops damaged or destroyed.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (d), "farm

equipment" means machinery or other equipment used in farming.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.01) (was 720 ILCS 5/21-4)
Sec. 21-1.01. Criminal Damage to Government Supported Property.
(a) A person commits criminal damage to government supported property when he or she knowingly:
(1) damages any government supported property

without the consent of the State;

(2) by means of fire or explosive damages government

supported property;

(3) starts a fire on government supported property

without the consent of the State; or

(4) deposits on government supported land or in a

government supported building, without the consent of the State, any stink bomb or any offensive smelling compound and thereby intends to interfere with the use by another of the land or building.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "government supported" means any property supported in whole or in part with State funds, funds of a unit of local government or school district, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony when the damage to property is $500 or less; a Class 3 felony when the damage to property exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000; a Class 2 felony when the damage to property exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000; and a Class 1 felony when the damage to property exceeds $100,000. When the damage to property exceeds $10,000, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine equal to the value of the damages to the property.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1.1)
Sec. 21-1.1. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 78-255. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-1.2)
Sec. 21-1.2. Institutional vandalism.
(a) A person commits institutional vandalism when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he or she knowingly and without consent inflicts damage to any of the following properties:
(1) A church, synagogue, mosque, or other building,

structure or place used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) A cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for

the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) A school, educational facility or community

center;

(4) The grounds adjacent to, and owned or rented by,

any institution, facility, building, structure or place described in paragraphs (1), (2) or (3) of this subsection (a); or

(5) Any personal property contained in any

institution, facility, building, structure or place described in paragraphs (1), (2) or (3) of this subsection (a).

(b) Sentence.
(1) Institutional vandalism is a Class 3 felony when

the damage to the property does not exceed $300. Institutional vandalism is a Class 2 felony when the damage to the property exceeds $300. Institutional vandalism is a Class 2 felony for any second or subsequent offense.

(2) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court

shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine up to $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of institutional vandalism. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result of that prosecution, a person suffering damage to property or injury to his or her person as a result of institutional vandalism may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians of an unemancipated minor, other than guardians appointed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages rendered against the minor under this subsection in an amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.3)
Sec. 21-1.3. Criminal defacement of property.
(a) A person commits criminal defacement of property when the person knowingly damages the property of another by defacing, deforming, or otherwise damaging the property by the use of paint or any other similar substance, or by the use of a writing instrument, etching tool, or any other similar device. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section that the owner of the property damaged consented to such damage.
(b) Sentence.
(1) Criminal defacement of property is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense when the aggregate value of the damage to the property does not exceed $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage to the property exceeds $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 3 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or National Guard, or veterans.
(2) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, a person convicted of criminal defacement of property shall:
(A) pay the actual costs incurred by the property

owner or the unit of government to abate, remediate, repair, or remove the effect of the damage to the property. To the extent permitted by law, reimbursement for the costs of abatement, remediation, repair, or removal shall be payable to the person who incurred the costs; and

(B) if convicted of criminal defacement of property

that is chargeable as a Class 3 or Class 4 felony, pay a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal defacement of property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage to property that was caused by the offense, or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the offense occurred. When the property damaged is a school building, the community service may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.
(4) For the purposes of this subsection (b), aggregate value shall be determined by adding the value of the damage to one or more properties if the offenses were committed as part of a single course of conduct.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14; 98-466, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.4)
Sec. 21-1.4. Jackrocks violation.
(a) A person commits a jackrocks violation when he or she knowingly:
(1) sells, gives away, manufactures, purchases, or

possesses a jackrock; or

(2) places, tosses, or throws a jackrock on public or

private property.

(b) As used in this Section, "jackrock" means a caltrop or other object manufactured with one or more rounded or sharpened points, which when placed or thrown present at least one point at such an angle that it is peculiar to and designed for use in puncturing or damaging vehicle tires. It does not include a device designed to puncture or damage the tires of a vehicle driven over it in a particular direction, if a conspicuous and clearly visible warning is posted at the device's location, alerting persons to its presence.
(c) This Section does not apply to the possession, transfer, or use of jackrocks by any law enforcement officer in the course of his or her official duties.
(d) Sentence. A jackrocks violation is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-1.5)
Sec. 21-1.5. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 93-596, eff. 8-26-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 5 heading)

SUBDIVISION 5. TRESPASS
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-2)
Sec. 21-2. Criminal trespass to vehicles.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to vehicles when he or she knowingly and without authority enters any part of or operates any vehicle, aircraft, watercraft or snowmobile.
(b) Sentence. Criminal trespass to vehicles is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-2.5)
Sec. 21-2.5. Electronic tracking devices prohibited.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Electronic tracking device" means any device

attached to a vehicle that reveals its location or movement by the transmission of electronic signals.

"State agency" means all departments, officers,

commissions, boards, institutions, and bodies politic and corporate of the State. The term, however, does not mean the judicial branch, including, without limitation, the several courts of the State, the offices of the clerk of the supreme court and the clerks of the appellate court, and the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, nor does it mean the legislature or its committees or commissions.

"Telematics" includes, but is not limited to,

automatic airbag deployment and crash notification, remote diagnostics, navigation, stolen vehicle location, remote door unlock, transmitting emergency and vehicle location information to public safety answering points, and any other service integrating vehicle location technology and wireless communications.

"Vehicle" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section

1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(b) A person or entity in this State may not use an electronic tracking device to determine the location or movement of a person.
(c) This Section does not apply:
(1) when the registered owner, lessor, or lessee of a

vehicle has consented to the use of the electronic tracking device with respect to that vehicle;

(2) to the lawful use of an electronic tracking

device by a law enforcement agency;

(3) when the vehicle is owned or leased by a business

that is authorized to transact business in this State and the tracking device is used by the business for the purpose of tracking vehicles driven by employees of that business, its affiliates, or contractors of that business or its affiliates;

(4) when the vehicle is under the control of a State

agency and the electronic tracking device is used by the agency, or the Inspector General appointed under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act who has jurisdiction over that State agency, for the purpose of tracking vehicles driven by employees or contractors of that State agency; or

(5) telematic services that were installed by the

manufacturer, or installed by or with the consent of the owner or lessee of the vehicle and to which the owner or lessee has subscribed. Consent by the owner or lessee of the vehicle constitutes consent for any other driver or passenger of that vehicle.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 98-381, eff. 1-1-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-3)
Sec. 21-3. Criminal trespass to real property.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to real property when he or she:
(1) knowingly and without lawful authority enters or

remains within or on a building;

(2) enters upon the land of another, after receiving,

prior to the entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden;

(3) remains upon the land of another, after receiving

notice from the owner or occupant to depart;

(3.5) presents false documents or falsely represents

his or her identity orally to the owner or occupant of a building or land in order to obtain permission from the owner or occupant to enter or remain in the building or on the land;

(3.7) intentionally removes a notice posted on

residential real estate as required by subsection (l) of Section 15-1505.8 of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure before the date and time set forth in the notice; or

(4) enters a field used or capable of being used for

growing crops, an enclosed area containing livestock, an agricultural building containing livestock, or an orchard in or on a motor vehicle (including an off-road vehicle, motorcycle, moped, or any other powered two-wheel vehicle) after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden or remains upon or in the area after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart.

For purposes of item (1) of this subsection, this Section shall not apply to being in a building which is open to the public while the building is open to the public during its normal hours of operation; nor shall this Section apply to a person who enters a public building under the reasonable belief that the building is still open to the public.
(b) A person has received notice from the owner or occupant within the meaning of Subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing including a valid court order as defined by subsection (7) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 granting remedy (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of that Code, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the land or the forbidden part thereof.
(b-5) Subject to the provisions of subsection (b-10), as an alternative to the posting of real property as set forth in subsection (b), the owner or lessee of any real property may post the property by placing identifying purple marks on trees or posts around the area to be posted. Each purple mark shall be:
(1) A vertical line of at least 8 inches in length

and the bottom of the mark shall be no less than 3 feet nor more than 5 feet high. Such marks shall be placed no more than 100 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property; or

(2) A post capped or otherwise marked on at least its

top 2 inches. The bottom of the cap or mark shall be not less than 3 feet but not more than 5 feet 6 inches high. Posts so marked shall be placed not more than 36 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property. Prior to applying a cap or mark which is visible from both sides of a fence shared by different property owners or lessees, all such owners or lessees shall concur in the decision to post their own property.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall be construed to authorize the owner or lessee of any real property to place any purple marks on any tree or post or to install any post or fence if doing so would violate any applicable law, rule, ordinance, order, covenant, bylaw, declaration, regulation, restriction, contract, or instrument.
(b-10) Any owner or lessee who marks his or her real property using the method described in subsection (b-5) must also provide notice as described in subsection (b) of this Section. The public of this State shall be informed of the provisions of subsection (b-5) of this Section by the Illinois Department of Agriculture and the Illinois Department of Natural Resources. These Departments shall conduct an information campaign for the general public concerning the interpretation and implementation of subsection (b-5). The information shall inform the public about the marking requirements and the applicability of subsection (b-5) including information regarding the size requirements of the markings as well as the manner in which the markings shall be displayed. The Departments shall also include information regarding the requirement that, until the date this subsection becomes inoperative, any owner or lessee who chooses to mark his or her property using paint, must also comply with one of the notice requirements listed in subsection (b). The Departments may prepare a brochure or may disseminate the information through agency websites. Non-governmental organizations including, but not limited to, the Illinois Forestry Association, Illinois Tree Farm and the Walnut Council may help to disseminate the information regarding the requirements and applicability of subsection (b-5) based on materials provided by the Departments. This subsection (b-10) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2013.
(b-15) Subsections (b-5) and (b-10) do not apply to real property located in a municipality of over 2,000,000 inhabitants.
(c) This Section does not apply to any person, whether a migrant worker or otherwise, living on the land with permission of the owner or of his or her agent having apparent authority to hire workers on this land and assign them living quarters or a place of accommodations for living thereon, nor to anyone living on the land at the request of, or by occupancy, leasing or other agreement or arrangement with the owner or his or her agent, nor to anyone invited by the migrant worker or other person so living on the land to visit him or her at the place he is so living upon the land.
(d) A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if he or she beautifies unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial properties located within any municipality. For the purpose of this subsection, "unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property" means any real estate (1) in which the taxes have not been paid for a period of at least 2 years; and (2) which has been left unoccupied and abandoned for a period of at least one year; and "beautifies" means to landscape, clean up litter, or to repair dilapidated conditions on or to board up windows and doors.
(e) No person shall be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property which that person beautifies pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section.
(e-5) Mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee exceptions.
(1) A mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee shall be

exempt from prosecution for criminal trespass for entering, securing, or maintaining an abandoned residential property.

(2) No mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee shall be

liable to the mortgagor or other owner of an abandoned residential property in any civil action for negligence or civil trespass in connection with entering, securing, or maintaining the abandoned residential property.

(3) For the purpose of this subsection (e-5) only,

"abandoned residential property" means mortgaged real estate that the mortgagee or agent of the mortgagee determines in good faith meets the definition of abandoned residential property set forth in Section 15-1200.5 of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(f) This Section does not prohibit a person from entering a building or upon the land of another for emergency purposes. For purposes of this subsection (f), "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person to be in imminent danger of serious bodily harm or in which property is or is reasonably believed to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.
(g) Paragraph (3.5) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a building or land in the performance of his or her official duties.
(h) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(3.5) is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subdivision (a)(4) is a Class A misdemeanor.
(i) Civil liability. A person may be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of the land he or she entered upon with a motor vehicle as prohibited under paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. A person may also be liable to the owner for court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. The measure of damages shall be: (i) the actual damages, but not less than $250, if the vehicle is operated in a nature preserve or registered area as defined in Sections 3.11 and 3.14 of the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act; (ii) twice the actual damages if the owner has previously notified the person to cease trespassing; or (iii) in any other case, the actual damages, but not less than $50. If the person operating the vehicle is under the age of 16, the owner of the vehicle and the parent or legal guardian of the minor are jointly and severally liable. For the purposes of this subsection (i):
"Land" includes, but is not limited to, land used for

crop land, fallow land, orchard, pasture, feed lot, timber land, prairie land, mine spoil nature preserves and registered areas. "Land" does not include driveways or private roadways upon which the owner allows the public to drive.

"Owner" means the person who has the right to

possession of the land, including the owner, operator or tenant.

"Vehicle" has the same meaning as provided under

Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(j) This Section does not apply to the following persons while serving process:
(1) a person authorized to serve process under

Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(2) a special process server appointed by the circuit

court.

(Source: P.A. 97-184, eff. 7-22-11; 97-477, eff. 8-22-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1164, eff. 6-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-4)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 21-1.01 by P.A. 97-1108.)
Sec. 21-4. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 89-30, eff. 1-1-96. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-5)
Sec. 21-5. Criminal trespass to State supported land.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land, after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the State or its representative that the entry is forbidden, or remains upon the land or in the building after receiving notice from the State or its representative to depart, and who thereby interferes with another person's lawful use or enjoyment of the building or land.
A person has received notice from the State within the meaning of this subsection if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding entry to him or her or a group of which he or she is a part, has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the land or the forbidden part thereof.
(a-5) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon a right of way, including facilities and improvements thereon, owned, leased, or otherwise used by a public body or district organized under the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, the Local Mass Transit District Act, or the Regional Transportation Authority Act, after receiving, prior to the entry, notice from the public body or district, or its representative, that the entry is forbidden, or the person remains upon the right of way after receiving notice from the public body or district, or its representative, to depart, and in either of these instances intends to compromise public safety by causing a delay in transit service lasting more than 15 minutes or destroying property.
A person has received notice from the public body or district within the meaning of this subsection if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding entry to him or her has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at any point of entrance to the right of way or the forbidden part of the right of way.
As used in this subsection (a-5), "right of way" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 18c-7502 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(b) A person commits criminal trespass to State supported land when he or she enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the State or its representative in order to obtain permission from the State or its representative to enter the building or land; or remains upon the land or in the building by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the State or its representative in order to remain upon the land or in the building, and who thereby interferes with another person's lawful use or enjoyment of the building or land.
This subsection does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters upon land supported in whole or in part with State funds, or federal funds administered or granted through State agencies or any building on the land in the performance of his or her official duties.
(c) Sentence. Criminal trespass to State supported land is a Class A misdemeanor, except a violation of subsection (a-5) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-748, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-5.5)
Sec. 21-5.5. Criminal trespass to a safe school zone.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Employee" means a person employed by a school whose relationship with that agency constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor. "Employee" includes, but is not limited to, a teacher, student teacher, aide, secretary, custodial engineer, coach, or his or her designee.
"School administrator" means the school's principal, or his or her designee.
"Safe school zone" means an area that encompasses any of the following places during regular school hours or within 60 minutes before or after the school day or 60 minutes before or after a school-sponsored activity. This shall include any school property, ground, or street, sidewalk, or public way immediately adjacent thereto and any public right-of-way situated immediately adjacent to school property. The safe school zone shall not include any portion of the highway not actually on school property.
"School activity" means and includes any school session, any extracurricular activity or event sponsored by or participated in by the school, and the 60-minute periods immediately preceding and following any session, activity, or event.
"Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.
(b) A person commits the offense of criminal trespass to a safe school zone when he or she knowingly:
(1) enters or remains in a safe school zone without

lawful business, when as a student or employee, who has been suspended, expelled, or dismissed for disrupting the orderly operation of the school, and as a condition of the suspension or dismissal, has been denied access to the safe school zone for the period of the suspension or in the case of dismissal for a period not to exceed the term of expulsion, and has been served in person or by registered or certified mail, at the last address given by that person, with a written notice of the suspension or dismissal and condition; or

(2) enters or remains in a safe school zone without

lawful business, once being served either in person or by registered or certified mail that his or her presence has been withdrawn by the school administrator, or his or her designee, and whose presence or acts interfere with, or whenever there is reasonable suspicion to believe, such person will disrupt the orderly operation, or the safety, or peaceful conduct of the school or school activities. This clause (b)(2) has no application to conduct protected by the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act or any other law applicable to labor relations. This clause (b)(2) has no application to conduct protected by the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States or Article I of the Illinois Constitution, including the exercise of free speech, free expression, and the free exercise of religion or expression of religiously based views.

(c) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a safe school zone is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-547, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-6)
Sec. 21-6. Unauthorized Possession or Storage of Weapons.
(a) Whoever possesses or stores any weapon enumerated in Section 33A-1 in any building or on land supported in whole or in part with public funds or in any building on such land without prior written permission from the chief security officer for such land or building commits a Class A misdemeanor.
(b) The chief security officer must grant any reasonable request for permission under paragraph (a).
(Source: P.A. 89-685, eff. 6-1-97.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-7)
Sec. 21-7. Criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports; aggravated criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports when he or she enters upon, or remains in, any:
(1) restricted area or restricted landing area used

in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, after the person has received notice from the airport authority that the entry is forbidden;

(2) restricted area or restricted landing area used

in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the airport authority;

(3) restricted area or restricted landing area as

prohibited in paragraph (1) of this subsection, while dressed in the uniform of, improperly wearing the identification of, presenting false credentials of, or otherwise physically impersonating an airman, employee of an airline, employee of an airport, or contractor at an airport.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports when he or she enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, while in possession of a weapon, replica of a weapon, or ammunition, after the person has received notice from the airport authority that the entry is forbidden.
(c) Notice that the area is "restricted" and entry thereto "forbidden", for purposes of this Section, means that the person or persons have been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or by a printed or written notice forbidding the entry to him or her or a group or an organization of which he or she is a member, which has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at every usable entrance to the area or the forbidden part thereof.
(d) (Blank).
(e) (Blank).
(f) The terms "Restricted area" or "Restricted landing area" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Section 8 of the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", approved July 24, 1945, as amended, and also include any other area of the airport that has been designated such by the airport authority.
The terms "airman" and "airport" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Sections 6 and 12 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act.
(g) Paragraph (2) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a restricted area or a restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in the performance of his or her official duties.
(h) Sentence.
(1) A violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.
(2) A violation of paragraph (1) or (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.
(3) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-8)
Sec. 21-8. Criminal trespass to a nuclear facility.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to a nuclear facility when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority:
(1) enters or remains within a nuclear facility or on

the grounds of a nuclear facility, after receiving notice before entry that entry to the nuclear facility is forbidden;

(2) remains within the facility or on the grounds of

the facility after receiving notice from the owner or manager of the facility or other person authorized by the owner or manager of the facility to give that notice to depart from the facility or grounds of the facility; or

(3) enters or remains within a nuclear facility or on

the grounds of a nuclear facility, by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the owner or manager of the facility. This paragraph (3) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters or remains in the facility in the performance of his or her official duties.

(b) A person has received notice from the owner or manager of the facility or other person authorized by the owner or manager of the facility within the meaning of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding the entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to the facility or grounds of the facility or the forbidden part of the facility.
(c) In this Section, "nuclear facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.
(d) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a nuclear facility is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-9)
Sec. 21-9. Criminal trespass to a place of public amusement.
(a) A person commits criminal trespass to a place of public amusement when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority enters or remains on any portion of a place of public amusement after having received notice that the general public is restricted from access to that portion of the place of public amusement. These areas may include, but are not limited to: a playing field, an athletic surface, a stage, a locker room, or a dressing room located at the place of public amusement.
(a-5) A person commits the offense of criminal trespass to a place of public amusement when he or she knowingly and without lawful authority gains access to or remains on any portion of a place of public amusement by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the property owner, a lessee, an agent of either the owner or lessee, or a performer or participant. This subsection (a-5) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters or remains in the place of public amusement in the performance of his or her official duties.
(b) A property owner, a lessee, an agent of either the owner or lessee, or a performer or participant may use reasonable force to restrain a trespasser and remove him or her from the restricted area; however, any use of force beyond reasonable force may subject that person to any applicable criminal penalty.
(c) A person has received notice within the meaning of subsection (a) if he or she has been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the entrance to the portion of the place of public amusement that is restricted or an oral warning has been broadcast over the public address system of the place of public amusement.
(d) In this Section, "place of public amusement" means a stadium, a theater, or any other facility of any kind, whether licensed or not, where a live performance, a sporting event, or any other activity takes place for other entertainment and where access to the facility is made available to the public, regardless of whether admission is charged.
(e) Sentence. Criminal trespass to a place of public amusement is a Class 4 felony. Upon imposition of any sentence, the court shall also impose a fine of not less than $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offender was convicted. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21, Subdiv. 10 heading)

SUBDIVISION 10. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-10)
Sec. 21-10. Criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility.
(a) A person commits criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility, when he or she, where a motion picture is being exhibited, knowingly operates an audiovisual recording function of a device without the consent of the owner or lessee of that exhibition facility and of the licensor of the motion picture being exhibited.
(b) Sentence. Criminal use of a motion picture exhibition facility is a Class 4 felony.
(c) The owner or lessee of a facility where a motion picture is being exhibited, the authorized agent or employee of that owner or lessee, or the licensor of the motion picture being exhibited or his or her agent or employee, who alerts law enforcement authorities of an alleged violation of this Section is not liable in any civil action arising out of measures taken by that owner, lessee, licensor, agent, or employee in the course of subsequently detaining a person that the owner, lessee, licensor, agent, or employee, in good faith believed to have violated this Section while awaiting the arrival of law enforcement authorities, unless the plaintiff in such an action shows by clear and convincing evidence that such measures were manifestly unreasonable or the period of detention was unreasonably long.
(d) This Section does not prevent any lawfully authorized investigative, law enforcement, protective, or intelligence gathering employee or agent of the State or federal government from operating any audiovisual recording device in any facility where a motion picture is being exhibited as part of lawfully authorized investigative, protective, law enforcement, or intelligence gathering activities.
(e) This Section does not apply to a person who operates an audiovisual recording function of a device in a retail establishment solely to demonstrate the use of that device for sales and display purposes.
(f) Nothing in this Section prevents the prosecution for conduct that constitutes a violation of this Section under any other provision of law providing for a greater penalty.
(g) In this Section, "audiovisual recording function" means the capability of a device to record or transmit a motion picture or any part of a motion picture by means of any technology now known or later developed and "facility" does not include a personal residence.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21-11)
Sec. 21-11. Distributing or delivering written or printed solicitation on school property.
(a) Distributing or delivering written or printed solicitation on school property or within 1,000 feet of school property, for the purpose of inviting students to any event when a significant purpose of the event is to commit illegal acts or to solicit attendees to commit illegal acts, or to be held in or around abandoned buildings, is prohibited.
(b) For the purposes of this Section, "school property" is defined as the buildings or grounds of any public or private elementary or secondary school.
(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.1 heading)

ARTICLE 21.1. RESIDENTIAL PICKETING


(720 ILCS 5/21.1-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-1)
Sec. 21.1-1. Legislative finding and declaration.
The Legislature finds and declares that men in a free society have the right to quiet enjoyment of their homes; that the stability of community and family life cannot be maintained unless the right to privacy and a sense of security and peace in the home are respected and encouraged; that residential picketing, however just the cause inspiring it, disrupts home, family and communal life; that residential picketing is inappropriate in our society, where the jealously guarded rights of free speech and assembly have always been associated with respect for the rights of others. For these reasons the Legislature finds and declares this Article to be necessary.
(Source: Laws 1967, p. 940.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-2)
Sec. 21.1-2. Residential picketing. A person commits residential picketing when he or she pickets before or about the residence or dwelling of any person, except when the residence or dwelling is used as a place of business. This Article does not apply to a person peacefully picketing his own residence or dwelling and does not prohibit the peaceful picketing of the place of holding a meeting or assembly on premises commonly used to discuss subjects of general public interest.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.1-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.1-3)
Sec. 21.1-3. Sentence. Violation of Section 21.1-2 is a Class B misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.2 heading)

ARTICLE 21.2. INTERFERENCE WITH A PUBLIC
INSTITUTION OF EDUCATION
(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-1)
Sec. 21.2-1. The General Assembly, in recognition of unlawful campus and school disorders across the nation which are disruptive of the educational process, dangerous to the health and safety of persons, damaging to public and private property, and which divert the use of institutional facilities from the primary function of education, establishes by this Act criminal penalties for conduct declared in this Article to be unlawful. However, this Article does not modify or supersede any other law relating to damage to persons or property, nor does it prevent a public institution of education from establishing restrictions upon the availability or use of any building or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution to preserve their dedication to education, nor from establishing standards of scholastic and behavioral conduct reasonably relevant to the missions, processes and functions of the institution, nor from invoking appropriate discipline or expulsion for violations of such standards.
(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-2)
Sec. 21.2-2. Interference with a public institution of education. A person commits interference with a public institution of education when he or she, on the campus of a public institution of education, or at or in any building or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution, without authority from the institution he or she, through force or violence, actual or threatened:
(1) knowingly denies to a trustee, school board

member, superintendent, principal, employee, student or invitee of the institution:

(A) Freedom of movement at that place; or
(B) Use of the property or facilities of the

institution; or

(C) The right of ingress or egress to the

property or facilities of the institution; or

(2) knowingly impedes, obstructs, interferes with or

disrupts:

(A) the performance of institutional duties by a

trustee, school board member, superintendent, principal, or employee of the institution; or

(B) the pursuit of educational activities, as

determined or prescribed by the institution, by a trustee, school board member, superintendent, principal, employee, student or invitee of the institution; or

(3) knowingly occupies or remains in or at any

building, property or other facility owned, operated or controlled by the institution after due notice to depart.

(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-3)
Sec. 21.2-3. Nothing in this Article prevents lawful assembly of the trustees, school board members, superintendent, principal, employees, students or invitees of a public institution of education, or prevents orderly petition for redress of grievances.
(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-4)
Sec. 21.2-4. Sentence. A person convicted of violation of this Article commits a Class C misdemeanor for the first offense and for a second or subsequent offense commits a Class B misdemeanor. If the interference with the public institution of education is accompanied by a threat of personal injury or property damage, the person commits a Class 3 felony and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years and may be prosecuted for intimidation in accordance with Section 12-6 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-5)
Sec. 21.2-5. For the purposes of this Article the words and phrases described in this Section have the meanings designated in this Section, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.
"Public institution of education" means an educational organization located in this State which provides an organized elementary, secondary, or post-high school educational program, and which is supported in whole or in part by appropriations of the General Assembly, a unit of local government or school district.
A person has received "due notice" if he, or the group of which he is a part, has been given oral or written notice from an authorized representative of the public institution of education in a manner reasonably designated to inform him, or the group of which he is a part, that he or they should cease such action or depart from such premises. The notice may also be given by a printed or written notice forbidding entry conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance of the building or other facility, or the forbidden part thereof.
"Force or violence" includes, but is not limited to, use of one's person, individually or in concert with others, to impede access to or movement within or otherwise to interfere with the conduct of the authorized activities of the public institution of education, its trustees, school board members, superintendent, principal, employees, students or invitees.
(Source: P.A. 96-807, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/21.2-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 21.2-6)
Sec. 21.2-6.
If any provision of this Act or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of the Act which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this Act are declared severable.
(Source: P.A. 76-1582.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 21.3 heading)

ARTICLE 21.3. SOLICITATION ON SCHOOL PROPERTY
(Repealed)
Source: P.A. 88-357. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.




(720 ILCS 5/Tit. III Pt. D heading)

PART D. OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY AND DECENCY




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24 heading)

ARTICLE 24. DEADLY WEAPONS


(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)
Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:
(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or

carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same

unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle,

a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed

on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
(ii) are not immediately accessible; or
(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case,

firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or
(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind

designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or

carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the

purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less

than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or

other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or

taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction

or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about

his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person,

upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
(ii) are not immediately accessible; or
(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case,

firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a)

means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive

bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or
(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her

person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
(c) Violations in specific places.
(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or

24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4),

24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1),

24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection

(c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school"

means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c),

"public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.
(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)
Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful Use or Possession of Weapons by Felons or Persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections Facilities.
(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the Director of the Department of State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
(b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.
(c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.
(d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.
(e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years and any second or subsequent violation shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
(Source: P.A. 97-237, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.2)
Sec. 24-1.2. Aggravated discharge of a firearm.
(a) A person commits aggravated discharge of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:
(1) Discharges a firearm at or into a building he or

she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied and the firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;

(2) Discharges a firearm in the direction of another

person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied by a person;

(3) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person

he or she knows to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(4) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a

vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(5) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person

he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;

(6) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a

vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;

(7) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person

he or she knows to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(8) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person

he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or

(9) Discharges a firearm in the direction of a

vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a)(1) or subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this Section committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year that the offense was committed is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 10 years and not more than 45 years.
(c) For purposes of this Section:
"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.
"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.
(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.2-5)
Sec. 24-1.2-5. Aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm.
(a) A person commits aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:
(1) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm at or into a building he or she knows to be occupied and the machine gun or the firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;

(2) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of another person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied;

(3) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(4) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a) (1) or subsection (a) (2) of this Section is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a) (3), (a) (4), (a) (5), (a) (6), (a) (7), or (a) (8) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 12 years and no more than 50 years.
(c) For the purpose of this Section, "machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code.
(d) This Section does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
(Source: P.A. 97-676, eff. 6-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.5)
Sec. 24-1.5. Reckless discharge of a firearm.
(a) A person commits reckless discharge of a firearm by discharging a firearm in a reckless manner which endangers the bodily safety of an individual.
(b) If the conduct described in subsection (a) is committed by a passenger of a moving motor vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the driver of the motor vehicle the driver is accountable for such conduct.
(c) Reckless discharge of a firearm is a Class 4 felony.
(d) This Section does not apply to a peace officer while in the performance of his or her official duties.
(Source: P.A. 88-217.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)
Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.
(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:
(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any

vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her

person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:
(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver,

or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed

was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver,

or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed

was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not

been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was

previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged

in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or
(G) the person possessing the weapon had a order

of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged

in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21

years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.
(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:
(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
(ii) are not immediately accessible; or
(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm

carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.
(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4

felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3)

and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person

who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing

or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.7)
Sec. 24-1.7. Armed habitual criminal.
(a) A person commits the offense of being an armed habitual criminal if he or she receives, sells, possesses, or transfers any firearm after having been convicted a total of 2 or more times of any combination of the following offenses:
(1) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of

this Code;

(2) unlawful use of a weapon by a felon; aggravated

unlawful use of a weapon; aggravated discharge of a firearm; vehicular hijacking; aggravated vehicular hijacking; aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05; intimidation; aggravated intimidation; gunrunning; home invasion; or aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05; or

(3) any violation of the Illinois Controlled

Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act that is punishable as a Class 3 felony or higher.

(b) Sentence. Being an armed habitual criminal is a Class X felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-1.8)
Sec. 24-1.8. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member.
(a) A person commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when he or she knowingly:
(1) possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his

or her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang; or

(2) possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm

and firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible at the time of the offense while on any street, road, alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang.

(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3 years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized for the Class 2 felony.
(c) For purposes of this Section:
"Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to

it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

"Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning

ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-2)
Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.
(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a

peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces

of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public

utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors,

private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or

industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois

Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for

the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to

drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace

officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's

Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's

Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of

their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have received weapons training according to requirements of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance

of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard

at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons

to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.
(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Members of any club or organization organized for

the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations

while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or

permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in

a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun

gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Peace officers while in performance of their

official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces

of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine

guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture

any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken

down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery,

transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)

shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or

barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.
(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.
(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.
(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:
(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces

of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus

military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic

ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of

explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.
(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.
(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.
(Source: P.A. 97-465, eff. 8-22-11; 97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-725, eff. 1-1-15.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2.1)
Sec. 24-2.1. Unlawful use of firearm projectiles.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, possesses, or carries any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell.
For the purposes of this Section:
"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.
The definition contained herein shall not be construed to include shotgun shells.
"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.
"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.
(b) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Peace officers.
(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces

of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties.

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms,

while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the

performance of their official duties.

(6) Persons licensed under federal law to

manufacture, import, or sell firearms and firearm ammunition, and actually engaged in any such business, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such bullets or ammunition.

This exemption does not authorize the general private

possession of any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, but only such possession and activities which are within the lawful scope of a licensed business described in this paragraph.

(7) Laboratories having a department of forensic

ballistics or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(8) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of armor

piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells to persons specifically authorized under paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection to possess such bullets or shells.

(c) An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.
(d) Sentence. A person convicted of unlawful use of armor piercing bullets shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-2.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2.2)
Sec. 24-2.2. Manufacture, sale or transfer of bullets or shells represented to be armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly manufacture, sell, offer to sell, or transfer any bullet or shell which is represented to be an armor piercing bullet, a dragon's breath shotgun shell, a bolo shell, or a flechette shell as defined in Section 24-2.1 of this Code.
(b) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any person authorized under Section 24-2.1 to manufacture, sell, purchase, possess, or carry any armor piercing bullet or any dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of the exemption therein granted.
(c) An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption and that the activities forming the basis of any criminal charge brought pursuant to this Section were within the lawful scope of such exemption.
(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)
Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.
(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:
(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be

concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21

years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has

been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has

been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital,

institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the

person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is

intellectually disabled.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be

concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer,

manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any

person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the

business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who

devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and

profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a

person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this

paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied

with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a

firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.
(C) Sentence.
(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of

unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or

delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or

delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:
"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.
"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.
(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3A)
Sec. 24-3A. Gunrunning.
(a) A person commits gunrunning when he or she transfers 3 or more firearms in violation of any of the paragraphs of Section 24-3 of this Code.
(b) Sentence. A person who commits gunrunning:
(1) is guilty of a Class 1 felony;
(2) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the

sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years if the transfer is of not less than 11 firearms and not more than 20 firearms;

(3) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the

sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years if the transfer is of more than 20 firearms.

A person who commits gunrunning by transferring firearms to a person who, at the time of the commission of the offense, is under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class X felony.
(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)
Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm ammunition.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:
(1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his

possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or

(2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted

of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or

firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(4) He has been a patient in a mental institution

within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession. For purposes of this paragraph (4):

"Mental institution" means any hospital,

institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the

person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(5) He is intellectually disabled and has any

firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.
For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap.
(b) Sentence.
Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2)
Sec. 24-3.2. Unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly or recklessly uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell in violation of this Section.
For purposes of this Section:
"Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.
"Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
"Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.
"Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.
(b) A person commits a Class X felony when he or she, knowing that a firearm, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, is loaded with an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, intentionally or recklessly discharges such firearm and such bullet or shell strikes any other person.
(c) Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or her person, an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell and a firearm suitable for the discharge thereof is guilty of a Class 2 felony.
(d) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Peace officers;
(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces

of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties;

(4) Federal officials required to carry firearms,

while engaged in the performance of their official duties;

(5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the

performance of their official duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.3)
Sec. 24-3.3. Unlawful Sale or Delivery of Firearms on the Premises of Any School, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency. Any person 18 years of age or older who sells, gives or delivers any firearm to any person under 18 years of age in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony. School is defined, for the purposes of this Section, as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college or university. This does not apply to peace officers or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in school training courses, parades, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded and enclosed in a suitable case, box or transportation package.
(Source: P.A. 91-673, eff. 12-22-99.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4)
Sec. 24-3.4. Unlawful sale of firearms by liquor licensee.
(a) It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license to sell at retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission or local liquor control commissioner under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or an agent or employee of the licensee to sell or deliver to any other person a firearm in or on the real property of the establishment where the licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale or delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this Article and under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 87-591.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.5)
Sec. 24-3.5. Unlawful purchase of a firearm.
(a) For purposes of this Section, "firearms transaction record form" means a form:
(1) executed by a transferee of a firearm stating:

(i) the transferee's name and address (including county or similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the transferee is a citizen of the United States; (iii) the transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and place of birth, height, weight, and race of the transferee; and

(2) on which the transferee certifies that he or she

is not prohibited by federal law from transporting or shipping a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce or receiving a firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm in or affecting commerce.

(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm who knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another person who is prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm.
(c) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm when he or she, in purchasing or attempting to purchase a firearm, intentionally provides false or misleading information on a United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction record form.
(d) Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of this Section for a person to make a gift or loan of a firearm to a person who is not prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm if the transfer of the firearm is made in accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
(e) Sentence.
(1) A person who commits the offense of unlawful

purchase of a firearm:

(A) is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing

or attempting to purchase one firearm;

(B) is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing

or attempting to purchase not less than 2 firearms and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period;

(C) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the

offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 6 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period.

(2) In addition to any other penalty that may be

imposed for a violation of this Section, the court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each violation.

(f) A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.
(Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.6)
Sec. 24-3.6. Unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, "wireless telephone" means a device that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic communications without a wire connecting the device to the telephone network.
(b) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone when he or she manufactures, sells, transfers, purchases, possesses, or carries a firearm shaped or designed to appear as a wireless telephone.
(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the sale to or possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone by a peace officer.
(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone is a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 92-155, eff. 1-1-02.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.7)
Sec. 24-3.7. Use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense.
(a) A person commits the offense of use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense when he or she knowingly uses a stolen firearm in the commission of any offense and the person knows that the firearm was stolen.
(b) Sentence. Use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.8)
Sec. 24-3.8. Possession of a stolen firearm.
(a) A person commits possession of a stolen firearm when he or she, not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, possesses the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.
(b) Possession of a stolen firearm is a Class 2 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-3.9)
Sec. 24-3.9. Aggravated possession of a stolen firearm.
(a) A person commits aggravated possession of a stolen firearm when he or she:
(1) Not being entitled to the possession of not less

than 2 and not more than 5 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a one-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(2) Not being entitled to the possession of not less

than 6 and not more than 10 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(3) Not being entitled to the possession of not less

than 11 and not more than 20 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(4) Not being entitled to the possession of not less

than 21 and not more than 30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(5) Not being entitled to the possession of more than

30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.
(c) Sentence.
(1) A person who violates paragraph (1) of subsection

(a) of this Section commits a Class 1 felony.

(2) A person who violates paragraph (2) of subsection

(a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years.

(3) A person who violates paragraph (3) of subsection

(a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years.

(4) A person who violates paragraph (4) of subsection

(a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years.

(5) A person who violates paragraph (5) of subsection

(a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-4)
Sec. 24-4. Register of sales by dealer.
(a) Any seller of firearms of a size which may be concealed upon the person, other than a manufacturer selling to a bona fide wholesaler or retailer or a wholesaler selling to a bona fide retailer, shall keep a register of all firearms sold or given away.
(b) Such register shall contain the date of the sale or gift, the name, address, age and occupation of the person to whom the weapon is sold or given, the price of the weapon, the kind, description and number of the weapon, and the purpose for which it is purchased and obtained.
(c) Such seller on demand of a peace officer shall produce for inspection the register and allow such peace officer to inspect such register and all stock on hand.
(d) Sentence.
Violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-4.1)
Sec. 24-4.1. Report of lost or stolen firearms.
(a) If a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who possesses or acquires a firearm thereafter loses the firearm, or if the firearm is stolen from the person, the person must report the loss or theft to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after obtaining knowledge of the loss or theft.
(b) A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall take a written report and shall, as soon as practical, enter the firearm's serial number as stolen into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS).
(c) A person shall not be in violation of this Section if:
(1) the failure to report is due to an act of God,

act of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to receive the report;

(2) the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is

otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to prevent the person from reporting; or

(3) the person's designee makes a report if the

person is unable to make the report.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a petty offense for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-5)
Sec. 24-5. Defacing identification marks of firearms.
(a) Any person who shall knowingly or intentionally change, alter, remove or obliterate the name of the importer's or manufacturer's serial number of any firearm commits a Class 2 felony.
(b) A person who possesses any firearm upon which any such importer's or manufacturer's serial number has been changed, altered, removed or obliterated commits a Class 3 felony.
(c) Nothing in this Section shall prevent a person from making repairs, replacement of parts, or other changes to a firearm if those repairs, replacement of parts, or changes cause the removal of the name of the maker, model, or other marks of identification other than the serial number on the firearm's frame or receiver.
(d) A prosecution for a violation of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.
(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-6)
Sec. 24-6. Confiscation and disposition of weapons.
(a) Upon conviction of an offense in which a weapon was used or possessed by the offender, any weapon seized shall be confiscated by the trial court.
(b) Any stolen weapon so confiscated, when no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, shall be returned to the person entitled to possession, if known. After the disposition of a criminal case or in any criminal case where a final judgment in the case was not entered due to the death of the defendant, and when a confiscated weapon is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, and when in due course no legitimate claim has been made for the weapon, the court may transfer the weapon to the sheriff of the county who may proceed to destroy it, or may in its discretion order the weapon preserved as property of the governmental body whose police agency seized the weapon, or may in its discretion order the weapon to be transferred to the Department of State Police for use by the crime laboratory system, for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the Department. If, after the disposition of a criminal case, a need still exists for the use of the confiscated weapon for evidentiary purposes, the court may transfer the weapon to the custody of the State Department of Corrections for preservation. The court may not order the transfer of the weapon to any private individual or private organization other than to return a stolen weapon to its rightful owner.
The provisions of this Section shall not apply to violations of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or the Wildlife Code. Confiscation of weapons for Fish and Aquatic Life Code and Wildlife Code violations shall be only as provided in those Codes.
(c) Any mental hospital that admits a person as an inpatient pursuant to any of the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall confiscate any firearms in the possession of that person at the time of admission, or at any time the firearms are discovered in the person's possession during the course of hospitalization. The hospital shall, as soon as possible following confiscation, transfer custody of the firearms to the appropriate law enforcement agency. The hospital shall give written notice to the person from whom the firearm was confiscated of the identity and address of the law enforcement agency to which it has given the firearm.
The law enforcement agency shall maintain possession of any firearm it obtains pursuant to this subsection for a minimum of 90 days. Thereafter, the firearm may be disposed of pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-7)
Sec. 24-7. Weapons offenses; community service. In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of a violation of this Article to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Article, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.
This Section does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.
(Source: P.A. 88-558, eff. 1-1-95; 89-8, eff. 3-21-95.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-8)
Sec. 24-8. Firearm tracing.
(a) Upon recovering a firearm from the possession of anyone who is not permitted by federal or State law to possess a firearm, a local law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine how and from whom the person gained possession of the firearm. Upon recovering a firearm that was used in the commission of any offense classified as a felony or upon recovering a firearm that appears to have been lost, mislaid, stolen, or otherwise unclaimed, a local law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine prior ownership of the firearm.
(b) Local law enforcement shall, when appropriate, use the National Tracing Center of the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms in complying with subsection (a) of this Section.
(c) Local law enforcement agencies shall use the Illinois Department of State Police Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) Gun File to enter all stolen, seized, or recovered firearms as prescribed by LEADS regulations and policies.
(Source: P.A. 91-364, eff. 1-1-00; 92-300, eff. 1-1-02.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-9)
Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to believe that a minor under the age of 14 years who does not have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent, guardian, or person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:
(1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the

firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or

(2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or
(3) placed in some other location that a reasonable

person would believe to be secure from a minor under the age of 14 years.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) Subsection (a) does not apply:
(1) if the minor under 14 years of age gains access

to a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or defense of another; or

(2) to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age

of 14 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the minor or another person.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
(Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-9.5)
Sec. 24-9.5. Handgun safety devices.
(a) It is unlawful for a person licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923) to offer for sale, sell, or transfer a handgun to a person not licensed under that Act, unless he or she sells or includes with the handgun a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render the handgun temporarily inoperable or inaccessible. This includes but is not limited to:
(1) An external device that is:
(i) attached to the handgun with a key or

combination lock; and

(ii) designed to prevent the handgun from being

discharged unless the device has been deactivated.

(2) An integrated mechanical safety, disabling, or

locking device that is:

(i) built into the handgun; and
(ii) designed to prevent the handgun from being

discharged unless the device has been deactivated.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (h)(2) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of this Code.
(d) This Section does not apply to:
(1) the purchase, sale, or transportation of a

handgun to or by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer that provides or services a handgun for:

(i) personnel of any unit of the federal

government;

(ii) members of the armed forces of the United

States or the National Guard;

(iii) law enforcement personnel of the State or

any local law enforcement agency in the State while acting within the scope of their official duties; and

(iv) an organization that is required by federal

law governing its specific business or activity to maintain handguns and applicable ammunition;

(2) a firearm modified to be permanently inoperative;
(3) the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally

licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer described in item (1) of this subsection (d);

(4) the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally

licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer to a lawful customer outside the State; or

(5) an antique firearm.
(Source: P.A. 94-390, eff. 1-1-06.)


(720 ILCS 5/24-10)
Sec. 24-10. Municipal ordinance regulating firearms; affirmative defense to a violation. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of a municipal ordinance that prohibits, regulates, or restricts the private ownership of firearms if the individual who is charged with the violation used the firearm in an act of self-defense or defense of another as defined in Sections 7-1 and 7-2 of this Code when on his or her land or in his or her abode or fixed place of business.
(Source: P.A. 93-1048, eff. 11-16-04.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.5 heading)

ARTICLE 24.5. NITROUS OXIDE


(720 ILCS 5/24.5-5)
Sec. 24.5-5. Unlawful possession. Any person who possesses nitrous oxide or any substance containing nitrous oxide, with the intent to breathe, inhale, or ingest for the purpose of causing a condition of intoxication, elation, euphoria, dizziness, stupefaction, or dulling of the senses or for the purpose of, in any manner, changing, distorting, or disturbing the audio, visual, or mental processes, or who knowingly and with the intent to do so is under the influence of nitrous oxide or any material containing nitrous oxide is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person who commits a second or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. This Section shall not apply to any person who is under the influence of nitrous oxide or any material containing nitrous oxide pursuant to an administration for the purpose of medical, surgical, or dental care by a person duly licensed to administer such an agent.
(Source: P.A. 91-366, eff. 1-1-00.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.5-10)
Sec. 24.5-10. Unlawful manufacture or delivery. Any person, firm, corporation, co-partnership, limited liability company, or association that intentionally manufactures, delivers, or possesses with intent to manufacture or deliver nitrous oxide for any purpose prohibited under Section 24.5-5 is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 91-366, eff. 1-1-00.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.6 heading)

ARTICLE 24.6. LASERS AND LASER POINTERS
(Repealed)
(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12. Repealed by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.8 heading)

ARTICLE 24.8. AIR RIFLES
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-0.1)
Sec. 24.8-0.1. Definitions. As used in this Article:
"Air rifle" means and includes any air gun, air pistol, spring gun, spring pistol, B-B gun, paint ball gun, pellet gun or any implement that is not a firearm which impels a breakable paint ball containing washable marking colors or, a pellet constructed of hard plastic, steel, lead or other hard materials with a force that reasonably is expected to cause bodily harm.
"Dealer" means any person, copartnership, association or corporation engaged in the business of selling at retail or renting any of the articles included in the definition of "air rifle".
"Municipalities" include cities, villages, incorporated towns and townships.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-1)
Sec. 24.8-1. Selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children.
(a) A dealer commits selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children when he or she sells, lends, rents, gives or otherwise transfers an air rifle to any person under the age of 13 years where the dealer knows or has cause to believe the person to be under 13 years of age or where the dealer has failed to make reasonable inquiry relative to the age of the person and the person is under 13 years of age.
(b) A person commits selling, renting, or transferring air rifles to children when he or she sells, gives, lends, or otherwise transfers any air rifle to any person under 13 years of age except where the relationship of parent and child, guardian and ward or adult instructor and pupil, exists between this person and the person under 13 years of age, or where the person stands in loco parentis to the person under 13 years of age.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-2)
Sec. 24.8-2. Carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets.
(a) A person under 13 years of age commits carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets when he or she carries any air rifle on the public streets, roads, highways or public lands within this State, unless the person under 13 years of age carries the air rifle unloaded.
(b) A person commits carrying or discharging air rifles on public streets when he or she discharges any air rifle from or across any street, sidewalk, road, highway or public land or any public place except on a safely constructed target range.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-3)
Sec. 24.8-3. Permissive possession of an air rifle by a person under 13 years of age. Notwithstanding any provision of this Article, it is lawful for any person under 13 years of age to have in his or her possession any air rifle if it is:
(1) Kept within his or her house of residence or

other private enclosure;

(2) Used by the person and he or she is a duly

enrolled member of any club, team or society organized for educational purposes and maintaining as part of its facilities or having written permission to use an indoor or outdoor rifle range under the supervision guidance and instruction of a responsible adult and then only if the air rifle is actually being used in connection with the activities of the club team or society under the supervision of a responsible adult; or

(3) Used in or on any private grounds or residence

under circumstances when the air rifle is fired, discharged or operated in a manner as not to endanger persons or property and then only if it is used in a manner as to prevent the projectile from passing over any grounds or space outside the limits of the grounds or residence.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-4)
Sec. 24.8-4. Permissive sales. The provisions of this Article do not prohibit sales of air rifles:
(1) By wholesale dealers or jobbers;
(2) To be shipped out of the State; or
(3) To be used at a target range operated in

accordance with Section 24.8-3 of this Article or by members of the Armed Services of the United States or Veterans' organizations.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-5)
Sec. 24.8-5. Sentence. A violation of this Article is a petty offense. The State Police or any sheriff or police officer shall seize, take, remove or cause to be removed at the expense of the owner, any air rifle sold or used in any manner in violation of this Article.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/24.8-6)
Sec. 24.8-6. Municipal regulation. The provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which impose greater restrictions or limitations in respect to the sale and purchase, use or possession of air rifles as herein defined than are imposed by this Article, are not invalidated nor affected by this Article.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 25 heading)

ARTICLE 25. MOB ACTION AND RELATED OFFENSES


(720 ILCS 5/25-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 25-1)
Sec. 25-1. Mob action.
(a) A person commits mob action when he or she engages in any of the following:
(1) the knowing or reckless use of force or violence

disturbing the public peace by 2 or more persons acting together and without authority of law;

(2) the knowing assembly of 2 or more persons with

the intent to commit or facilitate the commission of a felony or misdemeanor; or

(3) the knowing assembly of 2 or more persons,

without authority of law, for the purpose of doing violence to the person or property of anyone supposed to have been guilty of a violation of the law, or for the purpose of exercising correctional powers or regulative powers over any person by violence.

(b) Sentence.
(1) Mob action in violation of paragraph (1) of

subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Mob action in violation of paragraphs (2) and (3)

of subsection (a) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A participant in a mob action that by violence

inflicts injury to the person or property of another commits a Class 4 felony.

(4) A participant in a mob action who does not

withdraw when commanded to do so by a peace officer commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(5) In addition to any other sentence that may be

imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of mob action to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service. This paragraph does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/25-1.1)
Sec. 25-1.1. (Renumbered).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/25-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 25-2)
Sec. 25-2. (Renumbered).
(Source: Renumbered by P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)


(720 ILCS 5/25-4)
Sec. 25-4. Looting by individuals.
(a) A person commits looting when he or she knowingly without authority of law or the owner enters any home or dwelling or upon any premises of another, or enters any commercial, mercantile, business, or industrial building, plant, or establishment, in which normal security of property is not present by virtue of a hurricane, fire, or vis major of any kind or by virtue of a riot, mob, or other human agency, and obtains or exerts control over property of the owner.
(b) Sentence. Looting is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalty imposed, the court shall impose a sentence of at least 100 hours of community service as determined by the court and shall require the defendant to make restitution to the owner of the property looted pursuant to Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/25-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/25-1.1)
Sec. 25-5. Unlawful contact with streetgang members.
(a) A person commits unlawful contact with streetgang members when he or she knowingly has direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been:
(1) sentenced to probation, conditional discharge, or

supervision for a criminal offense with a condition of that sentence being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(2) released on bond for any criminal offense with a

condition of that bond being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(3) ordered by a judge in any non-criminal proceeding

to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members; or

(4) released from the Illinois Department of

Corrections on a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release that he or she refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members.

(b) Unlawful contact with streetgang members is a Class A misdemeanor.
(c) This Section does not apply to a person when the only streetgang member or members he or she is with is a family or household member or members as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and the streetgang members are not engaged in any streetgang-related activity.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/25-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/25-2)
Sec. 25-6. Removal of chief of police or sheriff for allowing a person in his or her custody to be lynched.
(a) If a prisoner is taken from the custody of any policeman or chief of police of any municipality and lynched, it shall be prima facie evidence of wrong-doing on the part of that chief of police and he or she shall be suspended. The mayor or chief executive of the municipality shall appoint an acting chief of police until he or she has ascertained whether the suspended chief of police had done all in his or her power to protect the life of the prisoner. If, upon hearing all evidence and argument, the mayor or chief executive finds that the chief of police had done his or her utmost to protect the prisoner, he or she may reinstate the chief of police; but, if he or she finds the chief of police guilty of not properly protecting the prisoner, a new chief of police shall be appointed. Any chief of police replaced is not be eligible to serve again in that office.
(b) If a prisoner is taken from the custody of any sheriff or his or her deputy and lynched, it is prima facie evidence of wrong-doing on the part of that sheriff and he or she shall be suspended. The Governor shall appoint an acting sheriff until he or she has ascertained whether the suspended sheriff had done all in his or her power to protect the life of the prisoner. If, upon hearing all evidence and argument, the Governor finds that the sheriff had done his or her utmost to protect the prisoner, he or she shall reinstate the sheriff; but, if he or she finds the sheriff guilty of not properly protecting the prisoner, a new sheriff shall be duly elected or appointed, pursuant to the existing law provided for the filling of vacancies in that office. Any sheriff replaced is not eligible to serve again in that office.
(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 26 heading)

ARTICLE 26. DISORDERLY CONDUCT


(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)
Sec. 26-1. Disorderly conduct.
(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he or she knowingly:
(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to

alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace;

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any

manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the fire exists;

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any

manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in a place where its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in the place;

(3.5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat

of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session;

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any

manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed;

(5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false

report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting the report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(6) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making

or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency;

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false

report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act";

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false

report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any

manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that the assistance is required;

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false

report under Article II of "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended;

(11) Enters upon the property of another and for a

lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(12) While acting as a collection agency as defined

in the Collection Agency Act or as an employee of the collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(3.5), (a)(4), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.
A violation of subsection (a)(12) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7) or (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.
This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.
(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.
(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-1.1)
Sec. 26-1.1. False report of theft and other losses.
(a) A person who knowingly makes a false report of a theft, destruction, damage or conversion of any property to a law enforcement agency or other governmental agency with the intent to defraud an insurer is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(b) A person convicted of a violation of this Section a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-2)
Sec. 26-2. Interference with emergency communication.
(a) A person commits interference with emergency communication when he or she knowingly, intentionally and without lawful justification interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with the transmission of a communication over a citizens band radio channel, the purpose of which communication is to inform or inquire about an emergency.
(b) For the purpose of this Section, "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or in which property is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.
(c) Sentence.
(1) Interference with emergency communication is a

Class B misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2).

(2) Interference with emergency communication, where

serious bodily injury or property loss in excess of $1,000 results, is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-3)
Sec. 26-3. Use of a facsimile machine in unsolicited advertising or fund-raising.
(a) Definitions:
(1) "Facsimile machine" means a device which is

capable of sending or receiving facsimiles of documents through connection with a telecommunications network.

(2) "Person" means an individual, public or private

corporation, unit of government, partnership or unincorporated association.

(b) A person commits use of a facsimile machine in unsolicited advertising or fund-raising when he or she knowingly uses a facsimile machine to send or cause to be sent to another person a facsimile of a document containing unsolicited advertising or fund-raising material, except to a person which the sender knows or under all of the circumstances reasonably believes has given the sender permission, either on a case by case or continuing basis, for the sending of the material.
(c) Sentence. Any person who violates subsection (b) is guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-4)
Sec. 26-4. Unauthorized video recording and live video transmission.
(a) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom.
(a-5) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.
(a-6) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent when the recording or transmission is made outside that person's residence by use of an audio or video device that records or transmits from a remote location.
(a-10) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person under or through the clothing worn by that other person for the purpose of viewing the body of or the undergarments worn by that other person without that person's consent.
(a-15) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent.
(a-20) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.
(a-25) It is unlawful for any person to, by any means, knowingly disseminate, or permit to be disseminated, a video record or live video that he or she knows to have been made or transmitted in violation of (a), (a-5), (a-6), (a-10), (a-15), or (a-20).
(b) Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Section:
(1) The making of a video record or transmission of

live video by law enforcement officers pursuant to a criminal investigation, which is otherwise lawful;

(2) The making of a video record or transmission of

live video by correctional officials for security reasons or for investigation of alleged misconduct involving a person committed to the Department of Corrections; and

(3) The making of a video record or transmission of

live video in a locker room by a reporter or news medium, as those terms are defined in Section 8-902 of the Code of Civil Procedure, where the reporter or news medium has been granted access to the locker room by an appropriate authority for the purpose of conducting interviews.

(c) The provisions of this Section do not apply to any sound recording or transmission of an oral conversation made as the result of the making of a video record or transmission of live video, and to which Article 14 of this Code applies.
(d) Sentence.
(1) A violation of subsection (a-10), (a-15), or

(a-20) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-6) is

a Class 4 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 3

felony.

(4) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-6),

(a-10), (a-15) or (a-20) is a Class 3 felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(5) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 2

felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(e) For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Residence" includes a rental dwelling, but does

not include stairwells, corridors, laundry facilities, or additional areas in which the general public has access.

(2) "Video record" means and includes any

videotape, photograph, film, or other electronic or digital recording of a still or moving visual image; and "live video" means and includes any real-time or contemporaneous electronic or digital transmission of a still or moving visual image.

(Source: P.A. 96-416, eff. 1-1-10; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-4.5)
Sec. 26-4.5. Consumer communications privacy.
(a) For purposes of this Section, "communications company" means any person or organization which owns, controls, operates or manages any company which provides information or entertainment electronically to a household, including but not limited to a cable or community antenna television system.
(b) It shall be unlawful for a communications company to:
(1) install and use any equipment which would allow a

communications company to visually observe or listen to what is occurring in an individual subscriber's household without the knowledge or permission of the subscriber;

(2) provide any person or public or private

organization with a list containing the name of a subscriber, unless the communications company gives notice thereof to the subscriber;

(3) disclose the television viewing habits of any

individual subscriber without the subscriber's consent; or

(4) install or maintain a home-protection scanning

device in a dwelling as part of a communication service without the express written consent of the occupant.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each violation.
(d) Civil liability. Any person who has been injured by a violation of this Section may commence an action in the circuit court for damages against any communications company which has committed a violation. If the court awards damages, the plaintiff shall be awarded costs.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-5)
(This Section was renumbered as Section 48-1 by P.A. 97-1108.)
Sec. 26-5. (Renumbered).
(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1091, eff. 1-1-11. Renumbered by P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-6)
Sec. 26-6. Disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service.
(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that due to the unique nature of funeral and memorial services and the heightened opportunity for extreme emotional distress on such occasions, the purpose of this Section is to protect the privacy and ability to mourn of grieving families directly before, during, and after a funeral or memorial service.
(b) For purposes of this Section:
(1) "Funeral" means the ceremonies, rituals,

processions, and memorial services held at a funeral site in connection with the burial, cremation, or memorial of a deceased person.

(2) "Funeral site" means a church, synagogue, mosque,

funeral home, mortuary, cemetery, gravesite, mausoleum, or other place at which a funeral is conducted or is scheduled to be conducted within the next 30 minutes or has been conducted within the last 30 minutes.

(c) A person commits the offense of disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service when he or she:
(1) engages, with knowledge of the existence of a

funeral site, in any loud singing, playing of music, chanting, whistling, yelling, or noisemaking with, or without, noise amplification including, but not limited to, bullhorns, auto horns, and microphones within 300 feet of any ingress or egress of that funeral site, where the volume of such singing, music, chanting, whistling, yelling, or noisemaking is likely to be audible at and disturbing to the funeral site;

(2) displays, with knowledge of the existence of a

funeral site and within 300 feet of any ingress or egress of that funeral site, any visual images that convey fighting words or actual or veiled threats against any other person; or

(3) with knowledge of the existence of a funeral

site, knowingly obstructs, hinders, impedes, or blocks another person's entry to or exit from that funeral site or a facility containing that funeral site, except that the owner or occupant of property may take lawful actions to exclude others from that property.

(d) Disorderly conduct at a funeral or memorial service is a Class C misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.
(e) If any clause, sentence, section, provision, or part of this Section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is adjudged to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this Section or its application to persons or circumstances other than those to which it is held invalid, is not affected thereby.
(Source: P.A. 97-359, eff. 8-15-11.)


(720 ILCS 5/26-7)
Sec. 26-7. Disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer.
(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
"Aircraft" means any contrivance now known or

hereafter invented, used, or designed for navigation of or flight in the air, but excluding parachutes.

"Laser" means both of the following:
(1) any device that utilizes the natural

oscillations of atoms or molecules between energy levels for generating coherent electromagnetic radiation in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared region of the spectrum and when discharged exceeds one milliwatt continuous wave;

(2) any device designed or used to amplify

electromagnetic radiation by simulated emission that is visible to the human eye.

"Laser pointer" means a hand-held device that emits

light amplified by the stimulated emission of radiation that is visible to the human eye.

"Laser sight" means a laser pointer that can be

attached to a firearm and can be used to improve the accuracy of the firearm.

(b) A person commits disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer when he or she intentionally or knowingly:
(1) aims an operating laser pointer at a person he or

she knows or reasonably should know to be a peace officer; or

(2) aims and discharges a laser or other device that

creates visible light into the cockpit of an aircraft that is in the process of taking off, landing, or is in flight.

(c) Paragraph (2) of subsection (b) does not apply to the following individuals who aim and discharge a laser or other device at an aircraft:
(1) an authorized individual in the conduct of

research and development or flight test operations conducted by an aircraft manufacturer, the Federal Aviation Administration, or any other person authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration to conduct this research and development or flight test operations; or

(2) members or elements of the Department of Defense

or Department of Homeland Security acting in an official capacity for the purpose of research, development, operations, testing, or training.

(d) Sentence. Disorderly conduct with a laser or laser pointer is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 26.5 heading)

ARTICLE 26.5. HARASSING AND OBSCENE COMMUNICATIONS
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-0.1)
Sec. 26.5-0.1. Definitions. As used in this Article:
"Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, images, sounds, data or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions through an electronic device including, but not limited to, a telephone, cellular phone, computer, or pager, which communication includes, but is not limited to, e-mail, instant message, text message, or voice mail.
"Family or household member" includes spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, and persons with disabilities and their personal assistants. For purposes of this Article, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.
"Harass" or "harassing" means knowing conduct which is not necessary to accomplish a purpose that is reasonable under the circumstances, that would cause a reasonable person emotional distress and does cause emotional distress to another.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-1)
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-2)
Sec. 26.5-2. Harassment by telephone.
(a) A person commits harassment by telephone when he or she uses telephone communication for any of the following purposes:
(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or

proposal which is obscene, lewd, lascivious, filthy or indecent with an intent to offend;

(2) Making a telephone call, whether or not

conversation ensues, with intent to abuse, threaten or harass any person at the called number;

(3) Making or causing the telephone of another

repeatedly to ring, with intent to harass any person at the called number;

(4) Making repeated telephone calls, during which

conversation ensues, solely to harass any person at the called number;

(5) Making a telephone call or knowingly inducing a

person to make a telephone call for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense; or

(6) Knowingly permitting any telephone under one's

control to be used for any of the purposes mentioned herein.

(b) Every telephone directory published for distribution to members of the general public shall contain a notice setting forth a summary of the provisions of this Section. The notice shall be printed in type which is no smaller than any other type on the same page and shall be preceded by the word "WARNING". All telephone companies in this State shall cooperate with law enforcement agencies in using their facilities and personnel to detect and prevent violations of this Article.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-3)
Sec. 26.5-3. Harassment through electronic communications.
(a) A person commits harassment through electronic communications when he or she uses electronic communication for any of the following purposes:
(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or

proposal which is obscene with an intent to offend;

(2) Interrupting, with the intent to harass, the

telephone service or the electronic communication service of any person;

(3) Transmitting to any person, with the intent to

harass and regardless of whether the communication is read in its entirety or at all, any file, document, or other communication which prevents that person from using his or her telephone service or electronic communications device;

(4) Transmitting an electronic communication or

knowingly inducing a person to transmit an electronic communication for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense;

(5) Threatening injury to the person or to the

property of the person to whom an electronic communication is directed or to any of his or her family or household members; or

(6) Knowingly permitting any electronic

communications device to be used for any of the purposes mentioned in this subsection (a).

(b) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-4)
Sec. 26.5-4. Evidence inference. Evidence that a defendant made additional telephone calls or engaged in additional electronic communications after having been requested by a named complainant or by a family or household member of the complainant to stop may be considered as evidence of an intent to harass unless disproved by evidence to the contrary.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/26.5-5)
Sec. 26.5-5. Sentence.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), a person who violates any of the provisions of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Except as provided in subsection (b), a second or subsequent violation of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is a Class A misdemeanor, for which the court shall impose a minimum of 14 days in jail or, if public or community service is established in the county in which the offender was convicted, 240 hours of public or community service.
(b) In any of the following circumstances, a person who violates Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony:
(1) The person has 3 or more prior violations in the

last 10 years of harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or any similar offense of any other state;

(2) The person has previously violated the harassment

by telephone provisions, or the harassment through electronic communications provisions, or committed any similar offense in any other state with the same victim or a member of the victim's family or household;

(3) At the time of the offense, the offender was

under conditions of bail, probation, conditional discharge, mandatory supervised release or was the subject of an order of protection, in this or any other state, prohibiting contact with the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(4) In the course of the offense, the offender

threatened to kill the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(5) The person has been convicted in the last 10

years of a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) The person violates paragraph (5) of Section

26.5-2 or paragraph (4) of Section 26.5-3; or

(7) The person was at least 18 years of age at the

time of the commission of the offense and the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) The court may order any person convicted under this Article to submit to a psychiatric examination.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 28 heading)

ARTICLE 28. GAMBLING AND RELATED OFFENSES


(720 ILCS 5/28-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-1)
Sec. 28-1. Gambling.
(a) A person commits gambling when he or she:
(1) knowingly plays a game of chance or skill for

money or other thing of value, unless excepted in subsection (b) of this Section;

(2) knowingly makes a wager upon the result of any

game, contest, or any political nomination, appointment or election;

(3) knowingly operates, keeps, owns, uses, purchases,

exhibits, rents, sells, bargains for the sale or lease of, manufactures or distributes any gambling device;

(4) contracts to have or give himself or herself or

another the option to buy or sell, or contracts to buy or sell, at a future time, any grain or other commodity whatsoever, or any stock or security of any company, where it is at the time of making such contract intended by both parties thereto that the contract to buy or sell, or the option, whenever exercised, or the contract resulting therefrom, shall be settled, not by the receipt or delivery of such property, but by the payment only of differences in prices thereof; however, the issuance, purchase, sale, exercise, endorsement or guarantee, by or through a person registered with the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 8 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, or by or through a person exempt from such registration under said Section 8, of a put, call, or other option to buy or sell securities which have been registered with the Secretary of State or which are exempt from such registration under Section 3 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is not gambling within the meaning of this paragraph (4);

(5) knowingly owns or possesses any book, instrument

or apparatus by means of which bets or wagers have been, or are, recorded or registered, or knowingly possesses any money which he has received in the course of a bet or wager;

(6) knowingly sells pools upon the result of any game

or contest of skill or chance, political nomination, appointment or election;

(7) knowingly sets up or promotes any lottery or

sells, offers to sell or transfers any ticket or share for any lottery;

(8) knowingly sets up or promotes any policy game or

sells, offers to sell or knowingly possesses or transfers any policy ticket, slip, record, document or other similar device;

(9) knowingly drafts, prints or publishes any lottery

ticket or share, or any policy ticket, slip, record, document or similar device, except for such activity related to lotteries, bingo games and raffles authorized by and conducted in accordance with the laws of Illinois or any other state or foreign government;

(10) knowingly advertises any lottery or policy game,

except for such activity related to lotteries, bingo games and raffles authorized by and conducted in accordance with the laws of Illinois or any other state;

(11) knowingly transmits information as to wagers,

betting odds, or changes in betting odds by telephone, telegraph, radio, semaphore or similar means; or knowingly installs or maintains equipment for the transmission or receipt of such information; except that nothing in this subdivision (11) prohibits transmission or receipt of such information for use in news reporting of sporting events or contests; or

(12) knowingly establishes, maintains, or operates an

Internet site that permits a person to play a game of chance or skill for money or other thing of value by means of the Internet or to make a wager upon the result of any game, contest, political nomination, appointment, or election by means of the Internet. This item (12) does not apply to activities referenced in items (6) and (6.1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(b) Participants in any of the following activities shall not be convicted of gambling:
(1) Agreements to compensate for loss caused by the

happening of chance including without limitation contracts of indemnity or guaranty and life or health or accident insurance.

(2) Offers of prizes, award or compensation to the

actual contestants in any bona fide contest for the determination of skill, speed, strength or endurance or to the owners of animals or vehicles entered in such contest.

(3) Pari-mutuel betting as authorized by the law of

this State.

(4) Manufacture of gambling devices, including the

acquisition of essential parts therefor and the assembly thereof, for transportation in interstate or foreign commerce to any place outside this State when such transportation is not prohibited by any applicable Federal law; or the manufacture, distribution, or possession of video gaming terminals, as defined in the Video Gaming Act, by manufacturers, distributors, and terminal operators licensed to do so under the Video Gaming Act.

(5) The game commonly known as "bingo", when

conducted in accordance with the Bingo License and Tax Act.

(6) Lotteries when conducted by the State of Illinois

in accordance with the Illinois Lottery Law. This exemption includes any activity conducted by the Department of Revenue to sell lottery tickets pursuant to the provisions of the Illinois Lottery Law and its rules.

(6.1) The purchase of lottery tickets through the

Internet for a lottery conducted by the State of Illinois under the program established in Section 7.12 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(7) Possession of an antique slot machine that is

neither used nor intended to be used in the operation or promotion of any unlawful gambling activity or enterprise. For the purpose of this subparagraph (b)(7), an antique slot machine is one manufactured 25 years ago or earlier.

(8) Raffles and poker runs when conducted in

accordance with the Raffles and Poker Runs Act.

(9) Charitable games when conducted in accordance

with the Charitable Games Act.

(10) Pull tabs and jar games when conducted under the

Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act.

(11) Gambling games conducted on riverboats when

authorized by the Riverboat Gambling Act.

(12) Video gaming terminal games at a licensed

establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment when conducted in accordance with the Video Gaming Act.

(13) Games of skill or chance where money or other

things of value can be won but no payment or purchase is required to participate.

(c) Sentence.
Gambling is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent conviction under subsections (a)(3) through (a)(12), is a Class 4 felony.
(d) Circumstantial evidence.
In prosecutions under this Section circumstantial evidence shall have the same validity and weight as in any criminal prosecution.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-644, eff. 6-10-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-1.1)
Sec. 28-1.1. Syndicated gambling.
(a) Declaration of Purpose. Recognizing the close relationship between professional gambling and other organized crime, it is declared to be the policy of the legislature to restrain persons from engaging in the business of gambling for profit in this State. This Section shall be liberally construed and administered with a view to carrying out this policy.
(b) A person commits syndicated gambling when he or she operates a "policy game" or engages in the business of bookmaking.
(c) A person "operates a policy game" when he or she knowingly uses any premises or property for the purpose of receiving or knowingly does receive from what is commonly called "policy":
(1) money from a person other than the bettor or

player whose bets or plays are represented by the money; or

(2) written "policy game" records, made or used over

any period of time, from a person other than the bettor or player whose bets or plays are represented by the written record.

(d) A person engages in bookmaking when he or she knowingly receives or accepts more than five bets or wagers upon the result of any trials or contests of skill, speed or power of endurance or upon any lot, chance, casualty, unknown or contingent event whatsoever, which bets or wagers shall be of such size that the total of the amounts of money paid or promised to be paid to the bookmaker on account thereof shall exceed $2,000. Bookmaking is the receiving or accepting of bets or wagers regardless of the form or manner in which the bookmaker records them.
(e) Participants in any of the following activities shall not be convicted of syndicated gambling:
(1) Agreements to compensate for loss caused by the

happening of chance including without limitation contracts of indemnity or guaranty and life or health or accident insurance;

(2) Offers of prizes, award or compensation to the

actual contestants in any bona fide contest for the determination of skill, speed, strength or endurance or to the owners of animals or vehicles entered in the contest;

(3) Pari-mutuel betting as authorized by law of this

State;

(4) Manufacture of gambling devices, including the

acquisition of essential parts therefor and the assembly thereof, for transportation in interstate or foreign commerce to any place outside this State when the transportation is not prohibited by any applicable Federal law;

(5) Raffles and poker runs when conducted in

accordance with the Raffles and Poker Runs Act;

(6) Gambling games conducted on riverboats when

authorized by the Riverboat Gambling Act; and

(7) Video gaming terminal games at a licensed

establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment when conducted in accordance with the Video Gaming Act.

(f) Sentence. Syndicated gambling is a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-644, eff. 6-10-14.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-2)
Sec. 28-2. Definitions.
(a) A "gambling device" is any clock, tape machine, slot machine or other machines or device for the reception of money or other thing of value on chance or skill or upon the action of which money or other thing of value is staked, hazarded, bet, won or lost; or any mechanism, furniture, fixture, equipment or other device designed primarily for use in a gambling place. A "gambling device" does not include:
(1) A coin-in-the-slot operated mechanical device

played for amusement which rewards the player with the right to replay such mechanical device, which device is so constructed or devised as to make such result of the operation thereof depend in part upon the skill of the player and which returns to the player thereof no money, property or right to receive money or property.

(2) Vending machines by which full and adequate

return is made for the money invested and in which there is no element of chance or hazard.

(3) A crane game. For the purposes of this paragraph

(3), a "crane game" is an amusement device involving skill, if it rewards the player exclusively with merchandise contained within the amusement device proper and limited to toys, novelties and prizes other than currency, each having a wholesale value which is not more than $25.

(4) A redemption machine. For the purposes of this

paragraph (4), a "redemption machine" is a single-player or multi-player amusement device involving a game, the object of which is throwing, rolling, bowling, shooting, placing, or propelling a ball or other object that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights into, upon, or against a hole or other target that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights, or stopping, by physical, mechanical, or electronic means, a moving object that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights into, upon, or against a hole or other target that is either physical or computer generated on a display or with lights, provided that all of the following conditions are met:

(A) The outcome of the game is predominantly

determined by the skill of the player.

(B) The award of the prize is based solely upon

the player's achieving the object of the game or otherwise upon the player's score.

(C) Only merchandise prizes are awarded.
(D) The wholesale value of prizes awarded in lieu

of tickets or tokens for single play of the device does not exceed $25.

(E) The redemption value of tickets, tokens, and

other representations of value, which may be accumulated by players to redeem prizes of greater value, for a single play of the device does not exceed $25.

(5) Video gaming terminals at a licensed

establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment licensed in accordance with the Video Gaming Act.

(a-5) "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.
(a-6) "Access" and "computer" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.
(b) A "lottery" is any scheme or procedure whereby one or more prizes are distributed by chance among persons who have paid or promised consideration for a chance to win such prizes, whether such scheme or procedure is called a lottery, raffle, gift, sale or some other name.
(c) A "policy game" is any scheme or procedure whereby a person promises or guarantees by any instrument, bill, certificate, writing, token or other device that any particular number, character, ticket or certificate shall in the event of any contingency in the nature of a lottery entitle the purchaser or holder to receive money, property or evidence of debt.
(Source: P.A. 97-1126, eff. 1-1-13; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-3)
Sec. 28-3. Keeping a Gambling Place. A "gambling place" is any real estate, vehicle, boat or any other property whatsoever used for the purposes of gambling other than gambling conducted in the manner authorized by the Riverboat Gambling Act or the Video Gaming Act. Any person who knowingly permits any premises or property owned or occupied by him or under his control to be used as a gambling place commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each subsequent offense is a Class 4 felony. When any premises is determined by the circuit court to be a gambling place:
(a) Such premises is a public nuisance and may be proceeded against as such, and
(b) All licenses, permits or certificates issued by the State of Illinois or any subdivision or public agency thereof authorizing the serving of food or liquor on such premises shall be void; and no license, permit or certificate so cancelled shall be reissued for such premises for a period of 60 days thereafter; nor shall any person convicted of keeping a gambling place be reissued such license for one year from his conviction and, after a second conviction of keeping a gambling place, any such person shall not be reissued such license, and
(c) Such premises of any person who knowingly permits thereon a violation of any Section of this Article shall be held liable for, and may be sold to pay any unsatisfied judgment that may be recovered and any unsatisfied fine that may be levied under any Section of this Article.
(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-4)
Sec. 28-4. Registration of Federal Gambling Stamps.
(a) Every person who has purchased a Federal Wagering Occupational Tax Stamp, as required by the United States under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code, or a Federal Gaming Device Tax Stamp, as required by the United States under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code, shall register forthwith such stamp or stamps with the county clerk's office in which he resides and the county clerk's office of each and every county in which he conducts any business. A violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor.
(b) To register a stamp as required by this Section, each individual stamp purchaser and each member of a firm or association which is a stamp purchaser and, if such purchaser is corporate, the registered agent of the purchasing corporation shall deliver the stamp to the county clerk for inspection and shall under oath or affirmation complete and sign a registration form which shall state the full name and residence and business address of each purchaser and of each member of a purchasing firm or association and of each person employed or engaged in gambling on behalf of such purchaser, shall state the registered agent and registered address of a corporate purchaser, shall state each place where gambling is to be performed by or on behalf of the purchaser, and shall state the duration of validity of the stamp and the federal registration number and tax return number thereof. Any false statement in the registration form is material and is evidence of perjury.
(c) Within 3 days after such registration the county clerk shall by registered mail forward notice of such registration and a duplicate copy of each registration form to the Attorney General of this State, to the Chairman of the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, to the State's Attorney and Sheriff of each county wherein the stamp is registered, and to the principal official of the department of police of each city, village and incorporated town in this State wherein the stamp is registered or wherein the registrant maintains a business address.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-5)
Sec. 28-5. Seizure of gambling devices and gambling funds.
(a) Every device designed for gambling which is incapable of lawful use or every device used unlawfully for gambling shall be considered a "gambling device", and shall be subject to seizure, confiscation and destruction by the Department of State Police or by any municipal, or other local authority, within whose jurisdiction the same may be found. As used in this Section, a "gambling device" includes any slot machine, and includes any machine or device constructed for the reception of money or other thing of value and so constructed as to return, or to cause someone to return, on chance to the player thereof money, property or a right to receive money or property. With the exception of any device designed for gambling which is incapable of lawful use, no gambling device shall be forfeited or destroyed unless an individual with a property interest in said device knows of the unlawful use of the device.
(b) Every gambling device shall be seized and forfeited to the county wherein such seizure occurs. Any money or other thing of value integrally related to acts of gambling shall be seized and forfeited to the county wherein such seizure occurs.
(c) If, within 60 days after any seizure pursuant to subparagraph (b) of this Section, a person having any property interest in the seized property is charged with an offense, the court which renders judgment upon such charge shall, within 30 days after such judgment, conduct a forfeiture hearing to determine whether such property was a gambling device at the time of seizure. Such hearing shall be commenced by a written petition by the State, including material allegations of fact, the name and address of every person determined by the State to have any property interest in the seized property, a representation that written notice of the date, time and place of such hearing has been mailed to every such person by certified mail at least 10 days before such date, and a request for forfeiture. Every such person may appear as a party and present evidence at such hearing. The quantum of proof required shall be a preponderance of the evidence, and the burden of proof shall be on the State. If the court determines that the seized property was a gambling device at the time of seizure, an order of forfeiture and disposition of the seized property shall be entered: a gambling device shall be received by the State's Attorney, who shall effect its destruction, except that valuable parts thereof may be liquidated and the resultant money shall be deposited in the general fund of the county wherein such seizure occurred; money and other things of value shall be received by the State's Attorney and, upon liquidation, shall be deposited in the general fund of the county wherein such seizure occurred. However, in the event that a defendant raises the defense that the seized slot machine is an antique slot machine described in subparagraph (b) (7) of Section 28-1 of this Code and therefore he is exempt from the charge of a gambling activity participant, the seized antique slot machine shall not be destroyed or otherwise altered until a final determination is made by the Court as to whether it is such an antique slot machine. Upon a final determination by the Court of this question in favor of the defendant, such slot machine shall be immediately returned to the defendant. Such order of forfeiture and disposition shall, for the purposes of appeal, be a final order and judgment in a civil proceeding.
(d) If a seizure pursuant to subparagraph (b) of this Section is not followed by a charge pursuant to subparagraph (c) of this Section, or if the prosecution of such charge is permanently terminated or indefinitely discontinued without any judgment of conviction or acquittal (1) the State's Attorney shall commence an in rem proceeding for the forfeiture and destruction of a gambling device, or for the forfeiture and deposit in the general fund of the county of any seized money or other things of value, or both, in the circuit court and (2) any person having any property interest in such seized gambling device, money or other thing of value may commence separate civil proceedings in the manner provided by law.
(e) Any gambling device displayed for sale to a riverboat gambling operation or used to train occupational licensees of a riverboat gambling operation as authorized under the Riverboat Gambling Act is exempt from seizure under this Section.
(f) Any gambling equipment, devices and supplies provided by a licensed supplier in accordance with the Riverboat Gambling Act which are removed from the riverboat for repair are exempt from seizure under this Section.
(g) The following video gaming terminals are exempt from seizure under this Section:
(1) Video gaming terminals for sale to a licensed

distributor or operator under the Video Gaming Act.

(2) Video gaming terminals used to train licensed

technicians or licensed terminal handlers.

(3) Video gaming terminals that are removed from a

licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment for repair.

(Source: P.A. 98-31, eff. 6-24-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-7)
Sec. 28-7. Gambling contracts void.
(a) All promises, notes, bills, bonds, covenants, contracts, agreements, judgments, mortgages, or other securities or conveyances made, given, granted, drawn, or entered into, or executed by any person whatsoever, where the whole or any part of the consideration thereof is for any money or thing of value, won or obtained in violation of any Section of this Article are null and void.
(b) Any obligation void under this Section may be set aside and vacated by any court of competent jurisdiction, upon a complaint filed for that purpose, by the person so granting, giving, entering into, or executing the same, or by his executors or administrators, or by any creditor, heir, legatee, purchaser or other person interested therein; or if a judgment, the same may be set aside on motion of any person stated above, on due notice thereof given.
(c) No assignment of any obligation void under this Section may in any manner affect the defense of the person giving, granting, drawing, entering into or executing such obligation, or the remedies of any person interested therein.
(d) This Section shall not prevent a licensed owner of a riverboat gambling operation from instituting a cause of action to collect any amount due and owing under an extension of credit to a riverboat gambling patron as authorized under the Riverboat Gambling Act.
(Source: P.A. 87-826.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-8)
Sec. 28-8. Gambling losses recoverable.
(a) Any person who by gambling shall lose to any other person, any sum of money or thing of value, amounting to the sum of $50 or more and shall pay or deliver the same or any part thereof, may sue for and recover the money or other thing of value, so lost and paid or delivered, in a civil action against the winner thereof, with costs, in the circuit court. No person who accepts from another person for transmission, and transmits, either in his own name or in the name of such other person, any order for any transaction to be made upon, or who executes any order given to him by another person, or who executes any transaction for his own account on, any regular board of trade or commercial, commodity or stock exchange, shall, under any circumstances, be deemed a "winner" of any moneys lost by such other person in or through any such transactions.
(b) If within 6 months, such person who under the terms of Subsection 28-8(a) is entitled to initiate action to recover his losses does not in fact pursue his remedy, any person may initiate a civil action against the winner. The court or the jury, as the case may be, shall determine the amount of the loss. After such determination, the court shall enter a judgment of triple the amount so determined.
(c) Gambling losses as a result of gambling conducted on a video gaming terminal licensed under the Video Gaming Act are not recoverable under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-31, eff. 6-24-13.)


(720 ILCS 5/28-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 28-9)
Sec. 28-9.
At the option of the prosecuting attorney any prosecution under this Article may be commenced by an information as defined in Section 102-12 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 76-1131.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29 heading)

ARTICLE 29. BRIBERY IN CONTESTS


(720 ILCS 5/29-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-1)
Sec. 29-1. Offering a bribe.
(a) Any person who, with intent to influence any person participating in, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition, gives, offers or promises any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage to induce such participant, official or other person not to use his best efforts in connection with such contest, event or exhibition commits a Class 4 felony.
(b) Any person who, with the intent to influence the decision of any individual, offers or promises any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage to induce such individual to attend, refrain from attending or continue to attend a particular public or private institution of secondary education or higher education for the purpose of participating or not participating in interscholastic athletic competition for such institution commits a Class A misdemeanor. This Section does not apply to the: (1) offering or awarding to an individual any type of scholarship, grant or other bona fide financial aid or employment; (2) offering of any type of financial assistance by such individual's family; or (3) offering of any item of de minimis value by such institution's authorities if such item is of the nature of an item that is commonly provided to any or all students or prospective students.
(c) Any person who gives any money, goods or other thing of value to an individual enrolled in an institution of higher education who participates in interscholastic competition and represents or attempts to represent such individual in future negotiations for employment with any professional sports team commits a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 85-665.)


(720 ILCS 5/29-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-2)
Sec. 29-2. Accepting a bribe.
Any person participating in, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition who accepts or agrees to accept any money, bribe or other thing of value or advantage with the intent, understanding or agreement that he will not use his best efforts in connection with such contest, event or exhibition commits a Class 4 felony.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)


(720 ILCS 5/29-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 29-3)
Sec. 29-3. Failure to report offer of bribe.
Any person participating, officiating or connected with any professional or amateur athletic contest, sporting event or exhibition who fails to report forthwith to his employer, the promoter of such contest, event or exhibition, a peace officer, or the local State's Attorney any offer or promise made to him in violation of Section 29-1 commits a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29A heading)

ARTICLE 29A. COMMERCIAL BRIBERY


(720 ILCS 5/29A-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-1)
Sec. 29A-1.
A person commits commercial bribery when he confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon any employee, agent or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or principal, with intent to influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's affairs.
(Source: P.A. 76-1129.)


(720 ILCS 5/29A-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-2)
Sec. 29A-2.
An employee, agent or fiduciary commits commercial bribe receiving when, without consent of his employer or principal, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's affairs.
(Source: P.A. 76-1129.)


(720 ILCS 5/29A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 29A-3)
Sec. 29A-3. Sentence.
(a) If the benefit offered, conferred, or agreed to be conferred, solicited, accepted or agreed to be accepted is less than $500,000, commercial bribery or commercial bribe receiving is a Class A misdemeanor and the sentence shall include, but not be limited to, a fine not to exceed $5,000.
(b) If the benefit offered, conferred, or agreed to be conferred, solicited, accepted, or agreed to be accepted in violation of this Article is $500,000 or more, the offender is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04.)


(720 ILCS 5/29A-4)
Sec. 29A-4. Corporate Crime Fund.
(a) In addition to any fines, penalties, and assessments otherwise authorized under this Code, any person convicted of a violation of this Article or Section 17-26 or 17-27 of this Code shall be assessed a penalty of not more than 3 times the value of all property involved in the criminal activity.
(b) The penalties assessed under subsection (a) shall be deposited into the Corporate Crime Fund, a special fund hereby created in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used to make restitution to a person who has suffered property loss as a result of violations of this Article. The court may determine the reasonable amount, terms, and conditions of the restitution. In determining the amount and method of payment of restitution, the court shall take into account all financial resources of the defendant.
(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04.)




(720 ILCS 5/Art. 29B heading)

ARTICLE 29B. MONEY LAUNDERING


(720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)
Sec. 29B-1. (a) A person commits the offense of money laundering:
(1) when, knowing that the property involved in a

financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves criminally derived property:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on

of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) where he or she knows or reasonably should

know that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the

location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting

requirement under State law; or

(1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or

transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer a monetary instrument:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of

the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the

financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the

location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting

requirement under State law; or

(2) when, with the intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of a specified

criminal activity as defined in this Article; or

(B) conceal or disguise the nature, location,

source, ownership, or control of property believed to be the proceeds of a specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6); or

(C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement

under State law,

he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial

transaction involving property he or she believes to be the proceeds of specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6) or property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6).

(b) As used in this Section:
(0.5) "Knowing that the property involved in a

financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the property involved in the transaction represented proceeds from some form, though not necessarily which form, of activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(1) "Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale,

loan, pledge, gift, transfer, delivery or other disposition utilizing criminally derived property, and with respect to financial institutions, includes a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment, transfer or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution. For purposes of clause (a)(2) of this Section, the term "financial transaction" also means a transaction which without regard to whether the funds, monetary instruments, or real or personal property involved in the transaction are criminally derived, any transaction which in any way or degree: (1) involves the movement of funds by wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more monetary instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or personal property. The receipt by an attorney of bona fide fees for the purpose of legal representation is not a financial transaction for purposes of this Section.

(2) "Financial institution" means any bank; saving

and loan association; trust company; agency or branch of a foreign bank in the United States; currency exchange; credit union, mortgage banking institution; pawnbroker; loan or finance company; operator of a credit card system; issuer, redeemer or cashier of travelers checks, checks or money orders; dealer in precious metals, stones or jewels; broker or dealer in securities or commodities; investment banker; or investment company.

(3) "Monetary instrument" means United States coins

and currency; coins and currency of a foreign country; travelers checks; personal checks, bank checks, and money orders; investment securities; bearer negotiable instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer securities and certificates of stock in such form that title thereto passes upon delivery.

(4) "Criminally derived property" means: (A) any

property, real or personal, constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law; or (B) any property represented to be property constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(5) "Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to

its ordinary meaning, initiating, concluding, or participating in initiating or concluding a transaction.

(6) "Specified criminal activity" means any violation

of Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) and any violation of Article 29D of this Code.

(7) "Director" means the Director of State Police or

his or her designated agents.

(8) "Department" means the Department of State Police

of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(9) "Transaction reporting requirement under State

law" means any violation as defined under the Currency Reporting Act.

(c) Sentence.
(1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a

value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a

value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a

value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(4) Money laundering in violation of subsection

(a)(2) of this Section is a Class X felony;

(5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a

value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony;

(6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of

this Section, the sentences are as follows:

(A) Laundering of property of a value not

exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding

$10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding

$100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding

$500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(d) Evidence. In a prosecution under this Article, either party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some form of criminally derived property or from some form of unlawful activity:
(1) A financial transaction was conducted or

structured or attempted in violation of the reporting requirements of any State or federal law; or

(2) A financial transaction was conducted or

attempted with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged instrument; or

(3) A falsely altered or completed written instrument

or a written instrument that contains any materially false personal identifying information was made, used, offered or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a financial transaction; or

(4) A financial transaction was structured or

attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the actual consideration or value of the transaction; or

(5) A money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade

or business or any employee of a money transmitter or a person engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should know that false personal identifying information has been presented and incorporates the false personal identifying information into any report or record; or

(6) The criminally derived property is transported or

possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or usual means of transportation or possession of such property and where the property is discovered in the absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate origin or right to such property; or

(7) A person pays or receives substantially less than

face value for one or more monetary instruments; or

(8) A person engages in a transaction involving one

or more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it apparent that they are not the product of bona fide business or financial transactions.

(e) Duty to enforce this Article.
(1) It is the duty of the Department of State Police,

and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all provisions of this Article, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent, officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the authority of this State.

(2) Any agent, officer, investigator, or peace

officer designated by the Director may: (A) make seizure of property pursuant to the provisions of this Article; and (B) perform such other law enforcement duties as the Director designates. It is the duty of all State's Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and institute legal proceedings as authorized under this Article.

(f) Protective orders.
(1) Upon application of the State, the court may

enter a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action to preserve the availability of property described in subsection (h) for forfeiture under this Article:

(A) upon the filing of an indictment,

information, or complaint charging a violation of this Article for which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and alleging that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Article; or

(B) prior to the filing of such an indictment,

information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons appearing to have an interest in the property and opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that:

(i) there is probable cause to believe that

the State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and that failure to enter the order will result in the property being destroyed, removed from the jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made unavailable for forfeiture; and

(ii) the need to preserve the availability of

the property through the entry of the requested order outweighs the hardship on any party against whom the order is to be entered.

Provided, however, that an order entered pursuant

to subparagraph (B) shall be effective for not more than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good cause shown or unless an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has been filed.

(2) A temporary restraining order under this

subsection may be entered upon application of the State without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property, if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to believe that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Section and that provision of notice will jeopardize the availability of the property for forfeiture. Such a temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing requested concerning an order entered under this paragraph shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to the expiration of the temporary order.

(3) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing

held pursuant to this subsection (f), evidence and information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois rules of evidence.

(4) Order to repatriate and deposit.
(A) In general. Pursuant to its authority to

enter a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the court may order a defendant to repatriate any property that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that property pending trial with the Illinois State Police or another law enforcement agency designated by the Illinois State Police.

(B) Failure to comply. Failure to comply with an

order under this subsection (f) is punishable as a civil or criminal contempt of court.

(g) Warrant of seizure. The State may request the issuance of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in subsection (h) in the same manner as provided for a search warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the seizure of such property.
(h) Forfeiture.
(1) The following are subject to forfeiture:
(A) any property, real or personal, constituting,

derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person obtained directly or indirectly, as a result of a violation of this Article;

(B) any of the person's property used, or

intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to facilitate the commission of, a violation of this Article;

(C) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles

or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in subparagraphs (A) and (B), but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a

common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Article;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture

under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered

by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(D) all real property, including any right,

title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Article.

(2) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article

may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(A) if the seizure is incident to a seizure

warrant;

(B) if the property subject to seizure has been

the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Article;

(C) if there is probable cause to believe that

the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(D) if there is probable cause to believe that

the property is subject to forfeiture under this Article and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(E) in accordance with the Code of Criminal

Procedure of 1963.

(3) In the event of seizure pursuant to paragraph

(2), forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with subsections (i) through (r).

(4) Property taken or detained under this Section

shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under this Article. When property is seized under this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(A) place the property under seal;
(B) remove the property to a place designated by

the Director;

(C) keep the property in the possession of the

seizing agency;

(D) remove the property to a storage area for

safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(E) place the property under constructive seizure

by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(F) provide for another agency or custodian,

including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(5) When property is forfeited under this Article,

the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with paragraph (6). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in its enforcement efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with paragraph (6).

(6) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other

property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be distributed as follows:

(A) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan

enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws.

(B)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office

of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office

of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(C) 10% shall be retained by the Department of

State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the

Department of State Police under this Article shall be deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund created in the State treasury and shall be used by the Department of State Police for State law enforcement purposes.

(i) Notice to owner or interest holder.
(1) Whenever notice of pending forfeiture or service

of an in rem complaint is required under the provisions of this Article, such notice or service shall be given as follows:

(A) If the owner's or interest holder's name and

current address are known, then by either personal service or mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address. For purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, then the address provided to the arresting agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner or interest holder's address changes prior to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the seizing agency of the change in address or, if the owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in address; or

(B) If the property seized is a conveyance, to

the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title or interest to the conveyance is required by law to be recorded, then by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address; or

(C) If the owner's or interest holder's address

is not known, and is not on record as provided in paragraph (B), then by publication for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred.

(2) Notice served under this Article is effective

upon personal service, the last date of publication, or the mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier.

(j) Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, within 90 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with the inventory of the property and its estimated value. When the property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are pending regarding such vehicle.
(k) Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or if real property is seized under the provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings as described in subsection (l) of this Section within 45 days from receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency under subsection (j) of this Section. However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the following procedure shall be used:
(1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the

seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seize